Parturition
1. Scientifically, the delivery of the developed fetus is termed as
(a) ovulation
(b) abortion
(c) oviposition
(d) parturition
Answer: (d)
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2. Which of these events is unlikely to happen if the mammalian ovum does not get fertilized?
(a) primary follicle starts to develop
(b) secretion of the estrogen increases
(c) rapid decrease in the secretion of progesterone
(d) disintegration of corpus luteum
Answer: (b)
3. Colostrum is
(a) milk of lactation period
(b) milk of initial few days
(c) milk of initial few hours
(d) milk on day one
Answer: (b)
4. In humans, the location of the Bartholin’s glands are
(a) either side of the fallopian tube
(b) either side of the penis
(c) either side of the vas deferens
(d) either side of the vagina
Answer: (d)
5. What does colostrum contain?
(a) four antibodies
(b) two antibodies
(c) many antibodies
(d) one antibody only
Answer: (c)
6. The Graafian follicle regresses to this after ovulation
(a) corpus albicans
(b) corpus atresia
(c) corpus callosum
(d) corpus luteum
Answer: (d)
7. The sex of the unborn takes shape during
(a) start of the cleavage
(b) implantation
(c) fertilization by the male gamete
(d) fertilization by female gamete
Answer: (c)
8. When does lactation start?
(a) During pregnancy
(b) at the end of first trimester
(c) before parturition
(d) at the end of pregnancy
Answer: (d)
9. After how many days of fertilization does implantation occur?
(a) 8 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 6 days
(d) 5 days
Answer: (b)
10. This structure ruptures when “water breaks” in pregnancy
(a) placenta
(b) amniotic fluid
(c) chorionic sac
(d) amniochorionic membrane
Answer: (b)
Polio
1. In 1955, the person who invented the Polio vaccine was
(a) Hiram Maxim
(b) Theodore Roosevelt
(c) Jonas Salk
(d) Joseph Stalin
Answer: (c)
2. Pick the correct statement regarding vaccines of Polio
(a) Salk is an inactivated polio vaccine
(b) Sabin is live attenuated polio vaccine
(c) Salk and Sabin are polio vaccines
(d) All the above are correct
Answer: (c)
3. This virus has RNA and DNA both
(a) Herpes Virus
(b) Leuko Virus
(c) Polio virus
(d) Cyanophage
Answer: (b)
4. Which serious ailment does the Poliovirus cause all over the world?
(a) mental retarded ness
(b) brain haemorrhage
(c) paralysis
(d) poliomyelitis
Answer: (d)
5. For the very first time, this virus was synthesized in the form of non-living crystals
(a) Bacteriophage
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus
(c) Flu Virus
(d) Pox virus
Answer: (b)
6. This technique is commonly used for most viral vaccines
(a) Molecular biology
(b) Animal tissues in vitro
(c) Virus like particles (VLPs)
(d) traditional cell culture
Answer: (d)
7. The causative of the disease, Polio is
(a) Fungus
(b) Virus
(c) Bacteria
(d) Toxin
Answer: (b)
8. Interferons curb infection of
(a) cancer
(b) bacteria
(c) fungi
(d) none of the above
Answer: (d)
9. The region where the polio virus multiplies in the body is
(a) intestinal cells
(b) nerve cells
(c) muscle cells
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)
10. This can eradicate Polio
(a) live polio vaccine
(b) killed polio vaccine
(c) combination of live and killed vaccines
(d) attention to sewage control and hygiene
Answer: (c)
PEM
1. Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) corresponds to a state where the infant’s dietary intake is deficient in
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) overall calories
(c) proteins
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: (d)
2. The availability of proteins and energy and inadequate absorption in the body is known as
(a) pepsin energy malnutrition
(b) pepsin enzyme malnutrition
(c) protein energy malnutrition
(d) protein excess malnutrition
Answer: (c)
3. PEM is mostly seen and has the most destructing consequences in
(a) adulthood and adolescence
(b) adolescence and early childhood
(c) infancy and early childhood
(d) only infancy
Answer: (c)
4. Up to the age of six months, this is the ideal food for newborns and young infants
(a) soy milk
(b) rice cereal
(c) breast milk
(d) iron-fortified formula
Answer: (c)
5. Disorders related to nutritions is known as
(a) balancing of nutrition
(b) insolubility of nutrition
(c) solubility of nutrition
(d) malnutrition
Answer: (d)
6. Which of the following diseases is caused by protein-energy malnutrition?
(a) angina
(b) goiter
(c) marasmus
(d) tuberculosis
Answer: (c)
7. A newborn infant, as part of routine is immediately assessed with this procedure after delivery
(a) infant functionality scale
(b) Apgar scoring system
(c) neonatal development scale
(d) Dubowitz-Ballard scale
Answer: (b)
8. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder impairing the metabolism of
(a) amino acid phenylalanine
(b) Polyunsaturated fatty acids
(c) proteins
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
9. This can be the first indication that PEM has led to the permanent damage to the brain
(a) low birth weight
(b) premature birth
(c) a reduced circumference of the head
(d) slowed reflexes during birth
Answer: (c)
10. The type of nutrition in which more nutrients are consumed than the required quantity for normal growth of the body
(a) pepsin-enzyme malnutrition
(b) mineral deficiency diseases
(c) over intake of nutrients
(d) protein energy malnutrition
Answer: (c)
Micropropagation
1. Micro propagation involves
(a) small explants used for vegetative multiplication of plants
(b) microbes used for vegetative multiplication of plants
(c) microspores used for vegetative multiplication of plants
(d) megaspores and microspores used for non-vegetative multiplication of plants
Answer: (a)
2. Pick the incorrect statement – Agar is a gelling agent in plant tissue culture medium
(a) it is not digested by the enzymes of plants
(b) it is not used in micropropagation work
(c) does not react with media constituents
(d) remains stable at incubation temperature
Answer: (b)
3. Solidifying agent that is used in plant tissue culture is
(a) Agar
(b) EDTA
(c) Cobaltous chloride
(d) Nicotinic acid
Answer: (a)
4. Benefit of clonal propagation or micropropagation is
(a) multiplication of sexually derived sterile hybrids
(b) multiplication of disease free plants
(c) rapid multiplication of superior clones
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
5. Protoplasts can be synthesized from suspension cultures, intact tissues or callus tissues by the enzymatic treatment with
(a) proteolytic enzymes
(b) both pectolytic and cellulolytic enzymes
(c) pectolytic enzymes
(d) cellulolytic enzymes
Answer: (b)
6. In artificial media, the growth of plant tissues is
(a) gene expression
(b) transgenesis
(c) plant tissue culture
(d) cell hybridization
Answer: (c)
7. An excised piece of stem tissue or leaf used in micropropagation is
(a) scion
(b) explant
(c) medium
(d) microshoot
Answer: (b)
8. Protoplasts are devoid of
(a) cell wall
(b) cell membrane
(c) both cell membrane and cell wall
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
9. This plant propagation technique uses girdling
(a) cuttings
(b) grafting
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) layering
Answer: (d)
10. __________ is used to develop virus free plants
(a) cell suspension culture
(b) protoplast culture
(c) meristem culture
(d) organ culture
Answer: (c)
Saprophytes
1. This can be used to demarcate a facultative parasite
(a) can become a parasite but is actually a saprophyte
(b) can become a saprophyte but is actually a parasite
(c) only requires dead organic matter to sustain
(d) requires a living host inevitably
Answer: (c)
2. Pick the incorrect statement about Fungi
(a) Can be anaerobic
(b) Can be photosynthetic
(c) Can be multicellular
(d) Can be saprophytic
Answer: (b)
3. The reason why there is a close association between fungi and algae in lichen is because the fungus
(a) releases oxygen for algae
(b) fixes atmospheric nitrogen for algae
(c) provides food for algae
(d) provides anchorage, protection and absorption for algae
Answer: (d)
4. Facultative saprophyte is
(a) always a saprophyte
(b) always a parasite
(c) a parasite which may live as a saprophyte
(d) may adapt a parasitic lifestyle
Answer: (c)
5. Lichens are a known combination of fungi and algae where the fungus is
(a) a symbiotic relationship with algae
(b) a parasitic relationship with algae
(c) an epiphytic relationship with algae
(d) a saprophytic relationship with algae
Answer: (a)
6. Fungi are ____________ when they feed on dead organic matter
(a) Saprophytes
(b) Parasites
(c) Dimorphic
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
7. Parasitic and saprobiotic mode of nutrition are found in
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Viruses
Answer: (c)
8. This one is saprophytic in nutrition
(a) virus
(b) cyanobacteria
(c) fungi
(d) all of these
Answer: (c)
9. When one organism obtains nutrition from the other, the mode of nutrition is
(a) heterotrophic
(b) symbiosis
(c) autotrophic
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
10. This has a saprophytic mode of nutrition
(a) Mushroom
(b) Leech
(c) lice
(d) roundworm
Answer: (a)
Protein Synthesis
1. This best describes a polysome
(a) active site for synthesis of lipids
(b) active site for synthesis of proteins
(c) active site for synthesis of DNA
(d) all of these
Answer: (b)
2. In protein synthesis, translocation is initiated with the movement of
(a) tRNA from P-site to the A-site
(b) dipeptidyl tRNA from A-site to P-site
(c) tRNA from A-site to P-site
(d) tRNA from P-site to E-site
Answer: (b)
3. The process by which protein synthesis from genetic code occurs is best described by
(a) transcription
(b) translation
(c) replication
(d) reproduction
Answer: (b)
4. This is incorrect about the nature of genetic code.
Codons are
(a) universal
(b) overlapping
(c) commaless
(d) triplet
Answer: (b)
5. This elongation factor is known as translocase
(a) EFG
(b) EF2
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) EF-Tu and EF-Ts
Answer: (c)
6. This drug inhibits the initiation step of translation
(a) ricin
(b) tetracycline
(c) streptomycin
(d) cyclohexylamine
Answer: (c)
7. In translation, this is not an essential component
(a) amino acid
(b) ligase
(c) mRNA
(d) anticodon
Answer: (b)
8. This identifies a particular amino acid and its cognate tRNA molecule
(a) topoisomerase
(b) rRNA
(c) Ribosome
(d) tRNA synthetase
Answer: (d)
9. Protein synthesis corresponds to the process of
(a) duplicating required DNA for synthesis of proteins
(b) formation of amino acids from mRNA
(c) formation of mRNA from DNA template
(d) formation of amino acids from DNA template directly
Answer: (b)
10. This is considered to be the start codon
(a) AGG
(b) UAG
(c) GUG
(d) AUG
Answer: (d)
Sycon
1. The best description of the group of animals to which Sycon belongs is
(a) acellular or unicellular
(b) multicellular possessing tissue organization where the body cavity is absent
(c) multicellular with a gastrovascular system
(d) multicellular without any tissue organization
Answer: (d)
2. If a sponge is chopped into small pieces, this happens
(a) some of the pieces forms organs
(b) every piece forms a sponge
(c) this will differentiate
(d) it dies
Answer: (b)
3. The spicules of silica are found in
(a) Grantia
(b) Leucosolenia
(c) Sycon
(d) Hyalonema
Answer: (c)
4. This about sponges is true
(a) large stomach
(b) chitinous spicules
(c) one mouth, many exits in the body
(d) many mouth openings and one exit chitinous spicule
Answer: (d)
5. These sponges are found in rivers
(a) Sycon
(b) Spongilla
(c) Cliona
(d) Hyalonema
Answer: (b)
6. In sponges, this chamber is common to all the types of canal systems
(a) radial chamber
(b) incurrent canal
(c) excurrent canal
(d) paragastric cavity
Answer: (d)
7. Amphiblastula is the larva of __________
(a) Planaria
(b) Sycon
(c) Leucosolenia
(d) Hydra
Answer: (b)
8. The primitive multicellular entities, sponges have
(a) Tissue grade of organization possessing organs and organ systems
(b) Cellular grade of organizations with absence of organs and organ systems
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
9. This is the excretory waste of Sycon
(a) urea
(b) uric acid
(c) ammonia
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
10. In Sycon, the epithelial lining is made of
(a) Choanocytes
(b) Amoebocytes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Pinacocytes/flat cells
Answer: (d)
Taxonomy of Angiosperms
1. Which of the following families is characterised by trimerous flowers, superior and trilocular ovary with axile placentation?
(a) Cucurbitaceae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Liliaceae
(d) Compositae
Answer: (c)
2. Fruits of the solanaceae family are
(a) Capsule or berry
(b) Pod
(c) Drupe
(d) Siliqua
Answer: (a)
3. Abelmoschus esculentus belongs to which of the following families?
(a) Brassicaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Liliaceae
(d) Cucurbitaceae
Answer: (b)
4. Which of the following is incorrect for Fabaceae?
(a) Actinomorphic flower
(b) Monocarpellary superior ovary
(c) Vexillary aestivation
(d) Legume fruit
Answer: (a)
5. Tetradynamous stamen is a characteristic feature of
(a) Cruciferae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer: (a)
6. 
This is the floral formula of
(a) Solanum nigrum
(b) Helianthus annuus
(c) Brassica campestris
(d) Allium cepa
Answer: (d)
7. Obligately placed superior ovary is the characteristic of
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Brassicaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Compositae
Answer: (c)
8. Compositae is characterized by which of the following inflorescences?
(a) Hypanthodium
(b) Capitulum
(c) Iodicule
(d) Perianth
Answer: (b)
9. Diadelphous stamens are found in
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Ranunculaceae
(c) Malvaceae
(d) Poaceae
Answer: (a)
10. A floral formula does not tell about
(a) ovary position
(b) whorls of floral parts
(c) number of floral parts
(d) placentation and aestivation
Answer: (d)
11. Which of the following flowers is perigynous?
(a) Hibiscus
(b) Rose
(c) Cucumber
(d) Guava
Answer: (b)
12. Axile placentation is not found in
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Liliaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Fabaceae
Answer: (d)
13. Synandrous condition of stamen is commonly found in which of the following families?
(a) Rosaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Umbelliferae
(d) Cucurbitaceae
Answer: (d)
14. Staminodes are commonly found in?
(a) Caesalpinioideae
(b) Papilionatae
(c) Cruciferae
(d) Malvaceae
Answer: (a)
15. Potato, tomato and brinjal belong to
(a) Brassicaceae
(b) Malvaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer: (c)
16. Which of the following is the inflorescence of Solanum nigrum?
(a) Cymose
(b) Catkin
(c) Racemose
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
17. What is the placentation in the unilocular ovary with a single ovule?
(a) Axile
(b) Free central
(c) Basal
(d) Marginal
Answer: (c)
18. Half-inferior ovary and perigynous flowers are present in
(a) Cucumber
(b) Guava
(c) Brinjal
(d) Plum
Answer: (d)
19. Which of the following has zygomorphic flowers?
(a) Tomato
(b) Gulmohar
(c) Mustard
(d) Datura
Answer: (b)
20. Petals of which of the following flowers form a keel?
(a) Cassia
(b) Gulmohar
(c) Bean
(d) Calotropis
Answer: (c)
Electron Transport System
The Electron Transport System (ETS) or Electron transport chain is present in the inner mitochondrial membrane. It contains several electron transporters in a series, which facilitate the movement of electrons from one carrier to another in redox reactions. The NADH and FADH2 produced during the citric acid cycle get oxidised. It results in the formation of a proton gradient across the membrane and which stimulates the formation of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation during cellular respiration.
1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of electron acceptors in ETS for production of ATP?
(a) Cyt b, c, a, a3
(b) Cyt a, a, b, c
(c) Cyt c, b, a, a3
(d) Cyt b, c, a3, a
Answer: (a)
2. Which of the following terminal cytochromes is responsible for donating electrons to oxygen?
(a) Cyt a3
(b) Cyt b
(c) Cyt c
(d) Cyt a1
Answer: (a)
3. Electron transport system (ETS) is present in which of the following parts of mitochondria?
(a) Inner membrane
(b) Outer membrane
(c) Matrix
(d) Stroma
Answer: (a)
4. Which of the following is the first complex (Complex I) of ETS?
(a) NADH dehydrogenase
(b) Cytochrome aa3
(c) Cytochrome bc1
(d) ATP synthase
Answer: (a)
5. Which of the following is the Complex III of ETS?
(a) NADH dehydrogenase
(b) Cytochrome aa3
(c) Cytochrome bc1
(d) ATP synthase
Answer: (c)
6. Ubiquinone transfers its electrons to
(a) Complex I
(b) Complex II
(c) matrix
(d) Cyt c
Answer: (d)
7. In which part of the cell, oxidative phosphorylation takes place?
(a) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(b) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(c) Grana of chloroplast
(d) Stroma of chloroplast
Answer: (a)
8. Cytochromes are present in
(a) lysosomes
(b) mitochondrial matrix
(c) cristae of mitochondria
(d) outer membrane of mitochondria
Answer: (c)
9. ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven by the movement of
(a) protons
(b) NADH
(c) electrons
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
10. Oxidative phosphorylation results in the formation of
(a) Oxygen
(b) ADP
(c) ATP + H2O
(d) NADH
Answer: (c)
11. Which of the following complexes of ETS does not account for the pumping out of protons from the mitochondrial matrix?
(a) Complex I
(b) Complex III
(c) Complex II
(d) Complex IV
Answer: (c)
12. Which of the following is the Complex IV of ETS?
(a) NADH dehydrogenase
(b) Cytochrome c oxidase
(c) Cytochrome bc1
(d) Succinate dehydrogenase
Answer: (b)
13. Which of the following is the Complex II of ETS?
(a) NADH dehydrogenase
(b) Succinate dehydrogenase
(c) Cytochrome bc1
(d) ATP synthase
Answer: (b)
14. Which of the following products of glucose oxidation are necessary for oxidative phosphorylation?
(a) Pyruvate
(b) NADH and FADH2
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) NADPH and ATP
Answer: (b)
15. Which of the following is true for cytochrome c oxidase complex?
(a) It donates electrons to O2
(b) It accepts electrons from Cyt c
(c) It pumps two protons out of the mitochondrial matrix
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Bioenergy
1. A good alternative to biogas is
(a) Charcoal
(b) Coal
(c) Oil and petroleum
(d) Fuel wood
Answer: (d)
2. Pick the incorrect pair
(a) Ethanol used as gasoline
(b) Biogas produced from dung
(c) Animal energy used most efficiently
(d) Latex source of liquid hydrocarbons
Answer: (c)
3. Natural gas, petrol and coal are this type of fuel
(a) liquid fuels
(b) fossil fuels
(c) electrical fuels
(d) biofuels
Answer: (b)
4. Solar energy transducer is
(a) Chlorella
(b) Orobanche
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Agaricus
Answer: (a)
5. An ideal good fuel can be attained from
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Michelia excelsa
(c) Dalbergia sissoo
(d) Bauhinia racemosa
Answer: (c)
6. Non-renewable resource is
(a) minerals and animals
(b) plants and animals
(c) minerals and fossils
(d) fishes and planktons
Answer: (c)
7. Petroplants was recognized first by
(a) M.Calvin
(b) Slack and Hatch
(c) Darwin
(d) Lamarck
Answer: (a)
8. Maximum energy can be extracted from wood through
(a) Cracking
(b) Gasification
(c) Direct burning
(d) Biomass
Answer: (b)
9. This is a major source of liquid hydrocarbon
(a) Solanum tuberosum
(b) Euphorbia antisyphilitica
(c) Cocos nucifera
(d) Calotropis gigantea
Answer: (b)
10. These bacterial groups are exploited in the production of biogas
(a) Eubacteria
(b) Organotrophs
(c) Methanotrophs
(d) Methanogens
Answer: (a)
Classification of Plants
1. Which of the following plants is an example of a cryptogam with vascular tissues?
(a) Equisetum
(b) Cedrus
(c) Marchantia
(d) Ginkgo
Answer: (a)
2. Which of the following plants does not have independent and free-living male and female gametophytes?
(a) Funaria
(b) Pteris
(c) Cedrus
(d) Polytrichum
Answer: (c)
3. Algae are further classified into different classes based on which of the following characteristics?
(a) Types of pigments
(b) Composition of cell wall
(c) Thallus organization
(d) Food reserve
Answer: (a)
4. Which of the following differentiates conifers from grasses?
(a) Absence of pollen tubes
(b) Lack of xylem tracheids
(c) Seeds are produced from ovules
(d) endosperm formation without fertilization
Answer: (d)
5. Plant diversification is a result of
(a) seed dispersal
(b) suddenly appeared
(c) abrupt mutations
(d) a long period of evolutionary changes
Answer: (d)
6. Domination of angiosperms on land due to
(a) domestication
(b) self-pollination
(c) a large number of seeds
(d) adaptability in diverse habitats
Answer: (d)
7. A quality of angiosperms without any exception is
(a) autotrophic nutrition
(b) secondary growth
(c) double fertilization
(d) presence of vessels
Answer: (c)
8. Which of the following is a characteristic of bryophytes?
(a) They possess chloroplasts
(b) They have archegonia
(c) The plant body is thalloid
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
9. Which of the following characteristics differentiates bryophytes from algae?
(a) They lack vascular tissue
(b) The plant body is thalloid
(c) They have chloroplasts
(d) They possess archegonia
Answer: (d)
10. Which of the following differentiates pteridophytes from bryophytes and thallophytes?
(a) Alternation of generation
(b) Archegonia
(c) Motile antherozoids
(d) Vascular tissues
Answer: (d)
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