Biology MCQs P 18

Protista

1. The protistan genome has

(a) Free nucleic acid aggregates

(b) Membrane-bound nucleoproteins embedded in the cytoplasm

(c) Gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in a loose mass

(d) nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance

Answer: (b)



2. The protist that reproduces both by binary fission and conjugation is

(a) Amoeba

(b) Euglena

(c) Paramecium

(d) Monocystis

Answer: (c)

3. A few protists possess structures to regulate their water content. They are

(a) membranes

(b) Chromatophores

(c) Nuclei

(d) Contractile vacuoles

Answer: (d)

4. Protists include

(a) Bacteria, fungi, algae and Bryophyta

(b) Protozoa, algae and fungi

(c) Vascular plants, slime moulds, and fungi

(d) Bacteria, algae, protozoa, and Bryophyta

Answer: (b)

5. Pick the wrong statement

(a) Diatoms are primarily produced in the oceans

(b) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in the water

(c) Walls of diatoms are destructible easily

(d) Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms

Answer: (c)

6. Micronucleus and macronucleus are the characteristic features of

(a) Balantidium and Hydra

(b) Vorticella and Nyctotherus

(c) Opalina and Nyctotherus

(d) Vorticella and Paramecium

Answer: (d)

7. The cell walls form two thin overlapping shells in which group of organisms such that they fit together

(a) Euglenoids

(b) Dinoflagellates

(c) Slime moulds

(d) Chrysophytes

Answer: (d)

8. Whorling whips are named so because of

(a) Type of nucleus

(b) Mode of movement

(c) Mode of reproduction

(d) Mode of nutrition

Answer: (b)

9. Red tide is caused by

(a) Noctiluca

(b) Ceratium

(c) Gonyaulax

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

10. In Dinoflagellates, the reserve food is

(a) Fucoxanthin

(b) Starch

(c) Alginic acid

(d) Mannitol

Answer: (b)

Animal Cell

1. Name the non-membrane bound organelle exclusively found only in animal cell

(a) Sphaerosome

(b) Glyoxisome

(c) Centriole

(d) Peroxisome

Answer: (c)

2. If the centromere is located at the proximity of the end of a chromosome, it is known as

(a) Acrocentric

(b) Metacentric

(c) Telocentric

(d) Submetacentric

Answer: (a)

3. Flagella, centrioles, cilia and basal bodies possess evident similar structural elements and arrangements. This can lead to this probable hypothesis

(a) Loss of basal bodies should lead to loss of all cilia, flagella, and centrioles

(b) Disruption of one of these types of the structure should necessarily disrupt each of the others as well

(c) Natural selection for motility must select for microtubular arrays in circular patterns

(d) Motor proteins such as dynein must have evolved before any of these four kinds of structure

Answer: (c)

4. In the plasma membrane of a few animals, the presence of cholesterol

(a) makes the membrane less flexible permitting it to sustain greater pressure from within the cell

(b) enables the membrane to stay fluid more easily when the temperature of the cell drops

(c) enables the animal to remove hydrogen atoms from saturated phospholipids

(d) enables the animal to add hydrogen atoms to unsaturated phospholipids

Answer: (b)

5. Component of plant cell absent in animal cell is

(a) Cytoplasm

(b) Cell membrane

(c) Cell wall

(d) Nucleus

Answer: (c)

6. The association of more than one ribosome with a single molecule of mRNA complex is known as

(a) Polysome

(b) Polypeptide

(c) Polymer

(d) Polysaccharide

Answer: (a)

7. This cell organelle is responsible to extract energy from carbohydrates to form ATP

(a) Mitochondrion

(b) Lysosome

(c) Ribosome

(d) Chloroplast

Answer: (a)

8. Balbiani rings are the sites of

(a) RNA and protein synthesis

(b) Lipid synthesis

(c) Nucleotide synthesis

(d) Polysaccharide synthesis

Answer: (a)

9. This organism is not an example of eukaryotic cells

(a) Euglena viridis

(b) Escherichia coli

(c) Amoeba proteus

(d) Paramoecium caudatum

Answer: (b)

10. The main site of different types of cellular activities is

(a) Mitochondrion

(b) Nucleus

(c) Cytoplasm

(d) Plasma membrane

Answer: (c)


Genetic Diversity

1. Trade name of genetically engineered insulin is

(a) Beta insulin

(b) Humilin

(c) Anulin

(d) Gilbert’s insulin

Answer: (b)

2. What is the consequence of a change in the genetic diversity

(a) results in loss of biological diversity

(b) leads to an increase in the population

(c) results in loss of human species only

(d) causes pollution

Answer: (a)

3. Increasing genetic diversity interprets daughter chromosome contains genes from

(a) None of the parents

(b) Single parent

(c) Both parents

(d) synthesis of own genes

Answer: (c)

4. A phenomenon occurring during prophase I of meiosis is

(a) Mutation

(b) Synapsis

(c) Translation

(d) Crossing over

Answer: (b)

5. Crossing over refers to

(a) thickening of chromosome

(b) change in chromosome

(c) Mutation

(d) exchange of segments between sections of chromosome

Answer: (d)

6. State the way in which increasing species diversity can affect the ecosystem

(a) it does not increase the efficiency and productivity of an ecosystem

(b) it increases only the efficiency and not the productivity of an ecosystem

(c) it increases the productivity and efficiency of an ecosystem

(d) it only increases the productivity of an ecosystem

Answer: (c)

7. Why does genetic diversity have a major role in the adaptability and survival of a species?

(a) any population should remain the same regardless of the outer change in the

environment

(b) Ability of population to adapt to changing environment

(c) Environment remains unchanged even if the population changes

(d) Population inability to adapt to changing environment

Answer: (b)

8. This biodiversity boosts the oxygen availability

(a) Ecosystem diversity

(b) Species diversity

(c) Genetic diversity

(d) Cell diversity

Answer: (a)

9. A country with several different habitat types is said to have a high degree of

(a) Genetic diversity

(b) Species diversity

(c) Biodiversity

(d) Habitat diversity

Answer: (d)

10. This is the importance of species diversity

(a) species interacts with its environment and hence performs some functions

(b) species never interact with the environment

(c) species minimize interaction with its environment and hence performs certain

functions

(d) species does not perform functions though it interacts with the environment

Answer: (a)


Animal Husbandry

1. The first cloned sheep ‘Dolly’ was created through which of these techniques?

(a) Nuclear transfer

(b) Gene transfer

(c) Germinal cell transfer

(d) Somatic cell transfer

Answer: (d)

2. Polenske value of milk is due to

(a) Fats

(b) Water-soluble fatty acids

(c) Water-insoluble fatty acids

(d) Proteins

Answer: (c)

3. Lactose found in milk is a disaccharide composed of

(a) Glucose and glucose

(b) Glucose and fructose

(c) Maltose and glucose

(d) Galactose and glucose

Answer: (d)

4. The lightest body weighed goat is

(a) Beetal

(b) Barbari

(c) Jamnapari

(d) Toggenburg

Answer: (b)

5. This method is carried out for the castration of male pigs

(a) Burdizzo

(b) Hot iron

(c) Knife

(d) Elastrator

Answer: (c)

6. The chemical nature of Estrogen is

(a) Amino acid

(b) Protein

(c) Fatty acid

(d) Steroid

Answer: (d)

7. In animals, Grass tetany is caused due to deficiency of

(a) Silicon

(b) Sodium

(c) Magnesium

(d) Selenium

Answer: (c)

8. Strip cup is used

(a) Just after milking

(b) Just before milking

(c) At the middle of milking

(d) Anytime during milking

Answer: (b)

9. ‘Curled toe paralysis’ in chicks is a symptom caused due to the deficiency of

(a) Phosphorous

(b) Sulphur

(c) Niacin

(d) Riboflavin

Answer: (d)

10. The fleshy evident mass found between the forelimbs of cows is known as

(a) Rump

(b) Flank

(c) Brisket

(d) Dewlap

Answer: (c)


Structural Organization in Plants and Animals

1. This statement about epithelial tissue is incorrect

(a) epithelial cells rest on a cellular basement membrane splitting it from underlying

connective tissues

(b) covers the external body surface and the internal surface of some organs

(c) adjacent cells are held by cell junctions with very little extracellular material

(d) No blood vessels that supply nutrients to the epithelial cells

Answer: (a)

2. The large amoeboid cells found in areolar tissue and are also part of our innate immune system are known as:

(a) Mast cells

(b) Macrophages

(c) Adipocytes

(d) Fibroblasts

Answer: (b)

3. What are the glands referred to as when secretary granules leave cells by exocytosis with no loss of other cellular material

(a) Merocrine

(b) Holocrine

(c) Autocrine

(d) Apocrine

Answer: (a)

4. In humans, bipolar neurons are found in

(a) Spinal cord

(b) Brain

(c) Olfactory epithelium

(d) Embryonic phases

Answer: (c)

5. This about Periplaneta americana is incorrect

(a) Mosaic vision

(b) Excretion by structures – malphigian tubules

(c) Paurometabolous development

(d) Hemolymph delivers oxygen to tissues

Answer: (d)

6. This structure has dense irregular connective tissue

(a) Cartilage

(b) Ligaments

(c) Tendons

(d) Skin

Answer: (d)

7. In the bodies of complex animals, the most widely distributed and abundant tissue is

(a) Neural

(b) Muscular

(c) Connective

(d) Epithelium

Answer: (c)

8. Sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system in male cockroaches

(a) Mushroom glands

(b) Seminal vesicles

(c) Testes

(d) Vas deferens

Answer: (b)

9. The role of the gap junction is to

(a) separate two cells from each other

(b) Prevent substances from leaking across a tissue

(c) Carry out cementing to keep adjacent cells together

(d) Enable communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for quick

ion transfer, small molecules and some large molecules

Answer: (d)

10. In comparison with humans, the erythrocytes in frogs are

(a) nucleated along with the presence of haemoglobin

(b) no nucleus but with haemoglobin

(c) few and very much small

(d) nucleated and without haemoglobin

Answer: (a)


Mendelian Disorders in Humans

1. Which of the following is a type of autosomal recessive genetic disorder?

(a) Haemophilia

(b) Skeletal dysplasia

(c) Sickle cell anaemia

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following disorder is also called the Royal disease?

(a) Colour blindness

(b) Haemophilia

(c) Sickle cell anaemia

(d) Alzheimer’s disease

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following disorder is an example of point mutation?

(a) Sickle cell anaemia

(b) Down’s syndrome

(c) Night blindness

(d) Thalassemia

Answer: (a)

4. If the father in a family has a disease while the mother is normal, the daughters only are inherited by this disease and not the sons. Name this type of disease?

(a) Autosomal recessive

(b) Autosomal dominant

(c) Sex-linked recessive

(d) Sex-linked dominant

Answer: (d)

5. Which of the following genotypes and phenotypes in a man may be the correct result of aneuploidy in sex chromosomes?

(a) 22 pairs + Y females

(b) 22 pairs + XY females

(c) 22 pairs + XXY females

(d) 22 pairs + XXXY females

Answer: (c)

6. What will be the condition of the progeny if the father is normal, while the mother has one gene for haemophilia and one gene for colour blindness on one of the X chromosomes?

(a) Only daughters are haemophilic and colour blind

(b) Both sons and daughters will be haemophilic and colour blind

(c) 50 per cent haemophilic and colour blind sons and 50% normal sons

(d) 50 per cent haemophilic colour blind daughters and 50% colour blind daughters

Answer: (c)

7. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. What are the chances that the child would have the disease if any one of the parent (either mother or father)is a carrier of the faulty cystic fibrosis gene (Cc)?

(a) 100 per cent

(b) 50 per cent

(c) 25 per cent

(d) 0 per cent

Answer: (d)

8. Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. What are the chances that any of the offspring do not express the disease phenotype if both parents are genotype (Aa)?

(a) 100 per cent

(b) 75 per cent

(c) 50 per cent

(d) 25 per cent

Answer: (b)

9. Which of the following is a trait of X-linked recessive?

(a) Albinism

(b) Haemophilia

(c) Huntington’s disease

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

10. The mode of inheritance for the trait – Fragile X syndrome is________.

(a) X linked dominant

(b) X linked recessive

(c) Autosomal dominant

(d) Autosomal recessive

Answer: (a)


Cell Cycle Phases

1. The division of cytoplasm is known as

(a) Mitosis

(b) Synapsis

(c) Cytokinesis

(d) Karyokinesis

Answer: (c)

2. The stage in which chromosomes align on the equator of spindle fiber is

(a) Telophase

(b) Anaphase

(c) Metaphase

(d) Prophase

Answer: (c)

3. The best stage at which the total number of chromosomes can be counted in any species is

(a) Telophase

(b) Metaphase

(c) Late anaphase

(d) Late prophase

Answer: (b)

4. Balbiani rings are found in

(a) Heterosome

(b) Lampbrush chromosome

(c) Autosome

(d) Polytene chromsome

Answer: (d)

5. This structure tends to vanish always during meiosis and mitosis

(a) Plastids

(b) Plasma membrane

(c) Nucleolus and nuclear membrane

(d) All of these

Answer: (c)

6. Centrosome duplication takes place in this phase

(a) S phase

(b) G1 phase

(c) G0 phase

(d) M phase

Answer: (a)

7. The __________ checkpoint is also known as restriction point

(a) G1 checkpoint

(b) G2 checkpoint

(c) M checkpoint

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

8. The characteristic of this stage of mitosis is the separation of the sister chromatids

(a) Telophase

(b) Metaphase

(c) Prometaphase

(d) Anaphase

Answer: (d)

9. This condition is necessary for a cell to qualify through the G2 checkpoint

(a) Cell should be of a size sufficient enough

(b) Complete and accurate DNA replication

(c) Sufficient stockpile of nucleotides

(d) Complete attachment of mitotic spindle fibers to kinetochores

Answer: (b)

10. Individual chromosomes become distinct through a light microscope during this mitotic stage

(a) Prometaphase

(b) Prophase

(c) Anaphase

(d) Metaphase

Answer: (b)


Fermentation

1. Monascus purpureus is utilized in the production of

(a) citric acid

(b) ethanol

(c) statins

(d) streptokinase

Answer: (c)

2. The type of fermentation observed in yeasts is

(a) acrylic fermentation

(b) lactic acid fermentation

(c) pyruvic fermentation

(d) alcoholic fermentation

Answer: (d)


3. In lactic acid fermentation, the final electron acceptor is:

(a) Lactic acid

(b) Pyruvate

(c) Oxygen

(d) NAD

Answer: (b)

4. Which of these is not a product of fermentation?

(a) Lactate

(b) Oxygen

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Ethanol

Answer: (b)

5. Which of the following is not a vegetable or fruit-based fermented product?

(a) Wine

(b) Sauerkraut

(c) Beer

(d) Vinegar

Answer: (d)

6. One of the most commonly used fermented cereal amongst these is

(a) Wheat

(b) Bread

(c) Rice

(d) Yoghurt

Answer: (b)

7. Glucose molecule during the process of glycolysis is broken down into

(a) Four pyruvic acid

(b) Three pyruvic acid

(c) Two pyruvic acid

(d) One pyruvic acid

Answer: (c)

8. Fermentation occurs in the

(a) presence of oxygen

(b) absence of oxygen

(c) presence of nitrogen

(d) presence of carbon

Answer: (b)

9. The least yield of ATP is observed in

(a) aerobic respiration

(b) anaerobic respiration

(c) fermentation

(d) same in (a), (b), and (c)

Answer: (c)

10. Anaerobic respiration by yeast produces

(a) CO2

(b) Wine and Beer

(c) Alcohol

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

Plant Taxonomy

1. Which of these is the most advanced phylogenetically among the dicotyledonous families?

(a) Scrophulariaceae

(b) Acanthaceae

(c) Umbelliferae

(d) Compositae

Answer: (d)

2. The substitute for the newly collected specimen when the original type material is missing in a herbarium is entitled as

(a) Holotype

(b) Neotype

(c) Lectotype

(d) Isotype

Answer: (b)

3. If all the puddles and ponds are destroyed, the entities likely to be destroyed are

(a) Plasmodium

(b) Ascaris

(c) Leishmania

(d) Trypanosoma

Answer: (a)

4. In the five-kingdom system of classification, into which kingdom would you classify nitrogen-fixing organisms and archaea?

(a) Fungi

(b) Plantae

(c) Protista

(d) Monera

Answer: (d)

5. This is considered as a demerit of the ‘Engler and Prantl’ in the system of classification

(a) Gymnosperms are placed between monocotyledons and dicotyledons

(b) Dicotyledons are placed after monocotyledons

(c) Dicotyledons are placed before monocotyledons

(d) Gymnosperms are placed among Dicotyledons

Answer: (b)

6. Phenetic classification is based on

(a) Observable characteristics of existing entities

(b) The ancestral lineage of existing organisms

(c) Dendrograms based on DNA characteristics

(d) Sexual characteristics

Answer: (a)

7. Difference between the natural system of plant classification and artificial system of classification is

(a) Considers only one vegetative character

(b) Considers all the similarities between plants

(c) Considers only one floral character

(d) All of the above

Answer: (b)

8. This system of classification was used by Linnaeus

(a) Phylogenetic system

(b) Natural system

(c) Artificial system

(d) Asexual system

Answer: (c)

9. Pick the right sequence of taxonomic categories

(a) division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species

(b) division-class-family-order-tribe-genus-species

(c) division-class-order-family-tribe-genus-species

(d) division-order-class-family-genus-tribe-species

Answer: (c)

10. ‘New Systematics’ term was coined by

(a) Linnaeus

(b) Bentham and Hooker

(c) A.P. de Candolle

(d) Juliane Huxley

Answer: (d)

Plant Systematics

1. The level of taxonomic study related to biological aspects of taxa, inclusive of intraspecific populations, speciation, evolutionary trends and rates is

(a) theta taxonomy

(b) alpha taxonomy

(c) beta taxonomy

(d) gamma taxonomy

Answer: (d)

2. The process wherein the labellum in Orchidaceae surfaces at the anterior side via the twisting of the ovary through 180 degree

(a) Articulation

(b) Adnation

(c) Attenuation

(d) Resupination

Answer: (d)

3. The organization of taxonomic information in logical classification is known as

(a) Phenetic

(b) Systematics

(c) Dendogram

(d) Phylogenetic

Answer: (b)

4. One of these is not a plant fossil

(a) Rhynia

(b) Lepidocarpon

(c) Lepidodendron

(d) Archaeopteryx

Answer: (d)

5. The primary advantage of Bentham and Hookers classification is

(a) It is a system whose basis is on evolutionary concepts

(b) It is a natural system of classification of all plant groups

(c) Deemed to be the phylogenetic aspect as well

(d) The taxa description is based on the actual examination of the specimens

Answer: (d)

6. Α taxonomy pertains to

(a) Chemotaxonomy

(b) Phylogeny

(c) Classical taxonomy

(d) Experimental taxonomy

Answer: (c)

7. To comprehend general plant relationships, this is one of the best methods

(a) Experimental Taxonomy

(b) Numerical Taxonomy

(c) Cytotaxonomy

(d) Chemotaxonomy

Answer: (d)

8. The condition of Polyadelphous can be found in

(a) Rutaceae

(b) Leguminosae

(c) Compositae

(d) Liliaceae

Answer: (a)

9. Linnaeus is credited with the following

(a) Law of Limiting factor

(b) Binomial nomenclature

(c) Concept of inheritance

(d) Theory of heredity

Answer: (b)

10. The reason why the system of plant classification proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial is

(a) Because it considered the physiological facts along with the morphological traits

(b) Because it was based on the similarities and differences in floral and other morphological characters only

(c) Because it was on the basis of evolutionary relationships of plants

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

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