Lymphocytes
1. Lymphocytes are of two types, they are
(a) T-cells and erythrocytes
(b) Erythrocytes and Platelets
(c) T-cells and Platelets
(d) T-cells and B-cells
Answer: (d)
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2. Which of these immune cells are able to quickly respond post any subsequent encounter with the same antigen?
(a) helper T cells
(b) memory cells
(c) plasma cells
(d) basophil
Answer: (b)
3. Basophils, eosinophils and Neutrophils are referred to as
(a) Platelets
(b) Astocytomas
(c) Granulocytes
(d) Buffers
Answer: (c)
4. Cytotoxic T cells destroy the target cells
(a) through injection of tumor necrosis factor
(b) by phagocytosis
(c) through insertion of perforins into the target’s membrane
(d) by releasing oxidizing agents
Answer: (c)
5. This is not a cardinal sign of inflammation
(a) redness
(b) heat
(c) swelling and pain
(d) opsonization
Answer: (d)
6. ___________ are released in the respiratory burst having the potent of cell-killing ability
(a) histamines
(b) neutrophils
(c) free radicals
(d) platelets-derived growth factors
Answer: (c)
7. The phenomena that initiates when a helper T cell binds with a class II MHC protein on a displaying cell is referred to as
(a) T cell proliferation
(b) costimulation
(c) self-antigen recognition
(d) antigen proliferation
Answer: (b)
8. The lymphocytes which can develop immunocompetence in the thymus is
(a) B lymphocytes
(b) T lymphocytes
(c) NK cells
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
9. An immune response when provoked by a nonself particle is known as
(a) immunoglobulin
(b) antibody
(c) antigen
(d) interferon
Answer: (c)
10. The only blood cells which are not viewed as a part of the immune system are
(a) fat cells
(b) glial cells
(c) osteocytes
(d) red blood cells
Answer: (d)
Phylogeny
1. This phenomena can be induced in those responsible for the horizontal elements of this phylogeny
(a) mitosis
(b) point mutations
(c) S phase of the cell cycle
(d) endosymbiosis
Answer: (d)
2. If cladistics were used to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, this would be the most appropriate outgroup
(a) tiger
(b) leopard
(c) wolf
(d) domestic cat
Answer: (c)
3. To construct a phylogenetic tree in order to apply parsimony, choose
(a) tree with fewest branch points
(b) tree representing fewest evolutionary changes either in morphology or DNA sequences
(c) tree in which branch points are based on as many shared characters possible
(d) tree assuming all evolutionary changes with equal probability
Answer: (b)
4. This is used to know the phylogeny
(a) mRNA
(b) rRNA
(c) DNA
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
5. On the basis of cladistics, this eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic and hence unacceptable
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Animalia
(d) Fungi
Answer: (b)
6. Possessing four appendages when comparing mammals with birds is
(a) a character used to sort bird species
(b) example of analogy rather than homology
(c) a shared derived character
(d) a shared ancestral character
Answer: (d)
7. Pick the incorrect statement concerning the terminologies of phylogenetics
(a) branches are the lines in the tree
(b) tips of the branches have long lost sequences or species
(c) node indicate inferred ancestor of extant taxa
(d) connecting point joining two adjacent branches is a node
Answer: (b)
8. This is not a vestigial organ in man
(a) coccyx
(b) nails
(c) third molar
(d) homologous
Answer: (b)
9. Pick the incorrect option for the blank
Recent uses of phylogenetic analysis is to analyse ________ in addition to tracing the evolutionary history of specific genes
(a) physical separation methods
(b) proteomes
(c) genomes
(d) gene families
Answer: (a)
10. This is incorrect about the merits of molecular data for Phylogenetics study
(a) sampling bias is involved
(b) with the help of molecular data more robust and clear-cut phylogenetic tree can be constructed
(c) much easier to obtain in comparison to fossil records
(d) more in number compared to fossil records
Answer: (a)
EMP Pathway
1. This enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a phosphoryl group from ATP to glucose
(a) Hexokinase
(b) Phosphoglucose isomerase
(c) Aldolase
(d) Phosphoglucose mutase
Answer: (a)
2. Glycolysis is the conversion of
(a) Fructose into phosphoenolpyruvate
(b) Fructose into pyruvate
(c) Glucose into phosphoenolpyruvate
(d) Glucose into pyruvate
Answer: (d)
3. The EMP pathway in eukaryotes usually takes place in
(a) nucleus
(b) lysosome
(c) Golgi apparatus
(d) cytosol
Answer: (d)
4. In the last step of the EMP pathway or glycolysis, this substrate is used
(a) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(b) Pyruvate
(c) 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate
(d) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
Answer: (a)
5. When yeasts carry out alcoholic fermentation of glucose, the coenzyme – thiamine pyrophosphate is needed by
(a) transaldolase
(b) pyruvate decarboxylase
(c) lactate dehydrogenase
(d) hexokinase
Answer: (b)
6. The activity of this enzyme increases when the ATP supply of a cell depletes
(a) Glucokinase
(b) Phosphofructokinase-1
(c) Hexokinase
(d) Pyruvate kinase
Answer: (b)
7. This is not one of the steps between the glycolysis of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and 3-phosphoglycerate
(a) formation of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
(b) oxidation of NADH to NAD+
(c) ATP synthesis
(d) catalysis by phosphoglycerate kinase
Answer: (b)
8. In EMP pathway, the process by which ATP is formed from ADP is
(a) reduction
(b) oxidative phosphorylation
(c) substrate-level phosphorylation
(d) photo phosphorylation
Answer: (c)
9. In erythrocytes, the EMP pathway or glycolysis produces pyruvate which is metabolized further to
(a) haemoglobin
(b) ethanol
(c) lactate
(d) CO2
Answer: (c)
10. This enzyme catalyzes the first step of glycolysis or the EMP pathway
(a) Glucokinase
(b) Pyruvate kinase
(c) Phosphofructokinase-1
(d) Hexokinase
Answer: (d)
1. This structure is absent in frogs and present in man
(a) thyroid gland
(b) adrenal gland
(c) salivary gland
(d) pancreas
Answer: (c)
2. This hormone facilitates the secretion of HCl from the stomach
(a) somatomedin
(b) secretin
(c) gastrin
(d) renin
Answer: (c)
3. Pick the incorrect statement
(a) cephalic phase of gastric secretion does not involve the release of gastrin
(b) contraction of pyloric sphincter is caused due to large doses of gastrin
(c) deficiency of intrinsic factor causes pernicious anaemia
(d) gastric peristalsis includes propulsive grinding and mixing movements
Answer: (a)
4. In humans, this pair of food constituents arrive at the stomach in a state of complete indigestion
(a) Starch and protein
(b) Fat and starch
(c) Cellulose and protein
(d) Cellulose and fat
Answer: (d)
5. This is most likely to happen if parietal cells of the gut epithelium turn partially non-functional
(a) Steapsin turns all the more effective
(b) pH of the stomach will sharply decline
(c) Efficiency of pancreatic enzymes will reduce particularly of lipase and trypsin
(d) Inadequate hydrolysis of pepsin into peptones and proteoses
Answer: (d)
6. This regulates the peristalsis of the intestine
(a) Brachial plexus
(b) Sacral plexus
(c) Auerbach’s plexus
(d) Discoidal plexus
Answer: (c)
7. This is incorrect about vitamins
(a) tocopherol is anti-sterility vitamin
(b) vitamins are indispensable for life
(c) vitamins act as a source of energy
(d) vitamins are organic catalysts
Answer: (c)
8. Minimum peristalsis takes place in
(a) Oesophagus
(b) Duodenum
(c) Rectum
(d) Stomach
Answer: (c)
9. This prevents keratinization of the skin
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin A
Answer: (d)
10. This macromineral is essential for the synthesis of insulin
(a) magnesium
(b) chlorine
(c) iodine
(d) sulphur
Answer: (d)
1. In an entity with genetic composition AA+XXY such as Drosophila will be a normal female. In the case of mammals, it will be?
(a) Turner
(b) Klinefelter
(c) Normal female
(d) Normal male
Answer: (b)
2. ______________ discovered XY sex chromosomes
(a) M J D White
(b) Nettil Stevans
(c) R Brown
(d) Mendel
Answer: (b)
3. In this plant, sex determination was first studied
(a) Mirabilis
(b) Melandrium
(c) Datura
(d) Rumex
Answer: (b)
4. This technique can be used to detect the chromosomal abnormality of an unborn baby
(a) Tissue culture
(b) Ultrasound
(c) CAT Scanning
(d) Amniocentesis
Answer: (d)
5. A foetus’ determination of gender is dependent on
(a) mother’s age
(b) father’s health
(c) egg’s nature
(d) sperm’s nature
Answer: (d)
6. This number of Barr bodies are found in a female with XXXX chromosomes
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) One
Answer: (b)
7. If a boy has sexual characters of that of a girl, its genotype would be
(a) XYY
(b) XO
(c) XXY
(d) XXX
Answer: (c)
8. Theory of linkage was put forward by
(a) De Vries
(b) Sutton
(c) Bateson and Punnet
(d) Morgan
Answer: (d)
9. The chromosomes accounted for sex determination are referred to as
(a) Heterosis
(b) Multiple alleles
(c) Allosomes
(d) Autosomes
Answer: (c)
10. The condition of Free martin is observed in
(a) Frog
(b) Rabbit
(c) Goat/sheep etc
(d) Man
Answer: (c)
1. Consumption of this causes increase in the fat synthesis, dilation of blood vessels, low blood sugar and stomach-inflammation
(a) drug addiction and tobacco
(b) alcohol
(c) tobacco
(d) drug addiction
Answer: (a)
2. This causes tunnel vision
(a) Smoking
(b) Alcohol
(c) Barbiturates
(d) Vitamin A deficiency
Answer: (b)
3. After drinking alcohol, consumption of this leads to death
(a) Morphine
(b) Opium
(c) Barbiturate
(d) All of these
Answer: (c)
4. This drug along with alcohol generates marked drowsiness otherwise does not produce sedative effect
(a) Marijuana
(b) Valium
(c) Antihistamine
(d) Barbiturate
Answer: (c)
5. Constituent of alcoholic beverage is
(a) Propyl alcohol
(b) Methyl alcohol
(c) Ethyl alcohol
(d) Mix of all of these
Answer: (c)
6. This is a result of the appearance of the fatty liver syndrome
(a) synthesis of fatty acids, fat and glycerols
(b) synthesis of fat from alcohol
(c) synthesis of fat from amino acids
(d) excessive synthesis of fat from fatty acids
Answer: (b)
7. Alcoholism causing fatty acid syndrome is called
(a) Cirrhosis
(b) Neuritis
(c) Gastritis
(d) Nephritis
Answer: (a)
8. This is a withdrawal symptom of alcohol consumption
(a) Delirium
(b) Nausea and vomiting
(c) swollen and patchy face
(d) all of these
Answer: (b)
9. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver
(a) meat and egg
(b) alcohol
(c) saturated fat
(d) starch
Answer: (b)
10. This is a consequence of alcohol addiction
(a) psychosis, hypertension and fatty liver syndrome
(b) cardiovascular diseases, hypertension and fatty liver syndrome
(c) ulcers, all types of mental illness, vitamin deficiency, cardiovascular diseases
(d) all of these
Answer: (b)
1. Division to which Selaginella belongs is
(a) Psilopsida
(b) Pteropsida
(c) Lycopsida
(d) Spenopsida
Answer: (c)
2. The character that Selaginella possesses which is of evolutionary significance is
(a) Strobilus
(b) Heterospory
(c) Seed
(d) Ligule
Answer: (b)
3. This statement regarding Selaginella is incorrect
(a) Endodermis is trabeculated
(b) Vascular cylinder is protostelic
(c) Few species of Selaginella are truly xerophytic
(d) Selaginella is commonly distributed on plains and hills
Answer: (d)
4. In this species of Selaginella, the apex continues its vegetative growth beyond the formation of strobilus
(a) S.cuspidata
(b) S.helvetica
(c) S.rupestris
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
5. This is uncommon in Selaginella and Funaria
(a) Embryo
(b) Roots
(c) Archegonium
(d) Motile sperms
Answer: (b)
6. The presence of ________ anatomically characterizes the stem of Selaginella
(a) Protostele
(b) Amphiphloic siphonostele
(c) Siphonostele
(d) Ectophloic siphonostele
Answer: (a)
7. This characterizes the presence of Selaginella
(a) Ligule
(b) Homospory
(c) Flowers
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
8. Male gametes in Selaginella are
(a) Multiflagellated
(b) Biflagellated
(c) Monoflagellated
(d) Aflagellated
Answer: (b)
9. Stele of Selaginella stem is
(a) Eustelic
(b) Solenostelic
(c) Protostelic
(d) Dictyostelic
Answer: (c)
10. This is the innermost layer of sporangium of Selaginella
(a) Tapetum
(b) Synangium
(c) Elaters
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
1. A common trait between tadpole and fish is
(a) scales
(b) lateral line
(c) fins
(d) legs
Answer: (b)
2. This has a cartilaginous endoskeleton
(a) Bony fishes
(b) Mollusca
(c) Dipnoi
(d) Elasmobranch
Answer: (d)
3. True fishes have fins and gills. This is not a true fish
(a) Hippocampus – SeaHorse
(b) Hythalamictyes – Silver carp
(c) Carassius – Goldfish
(d) Lepisma – Silverfish
Answer: (d)
4. This fish shows dorsal fin modified into suckers
(a) Neoceratodus
(b) Hippocampus
(c) Echeneis
(d) Torpedo
Answer: (c)
5. This is a living fossil
(a) Lepidosiren
(b) Latimeria
(c) Lepidosteus
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
6. This is a migratory fish
(a) Ribbon fish
(b) Carp
(c) Salmon
(d) Shark
Answer: (c)
7. The distinguishing factor between rays and sharks are
(a) type of tail fin
(b) position of gill slits
(c) position of mouth
(d) nature of their scales
Answer: (b)
8. Type of association between shark and suckerfish is
(a) Predation
(b) Parasitism
(c) Commensalism
(d) Symbiosis
Answer: (c)
9. Placoid scales are found in
(a) paleontological fishes
(b) lung fishes
(c) bony fishes
(d) cartilaginous fishes
Answer: (d)
10. This is a characteristic feature of fishes
(a) gills and epidermal scales
(b) tail and epidermal scales
(c) gills and venous heart
(d) venous heart and tail
Answer: (c)
1. Phenomena through which water is absorbed by solids such as colloids leading them to increase in volume is
(a) diffusion
(b) imbibition
(c) facilitated diffusion
(d) osmosis
Answer: (b)
2. In older dying leaves to younger leaves, the mineral ions are assimilated into
(a) deposition of organic and inorganic compounds
(b) organic compound
(c) inorganic compounds
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
3. Passage of water across a selectively permeable membrane is
(a) osmosis
(b) active transport
(c) facilitated diffusion
(d) pinocytosis
Answer: (a)
4. Wall pressure will______________ with rise in turgidity
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate
Answer: (a)
5. Most effective light for stomatal opening is
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Yellow
Answer: (b)
6. Diffusion of water through selectively permeable membrane is
(a) osmosis
(b) imbibition
(c) translocation
(d) diffusion
Answer: (a)
7. Water is forcefully pushed beyond endodermis of the root through the process of
(a) diffusion
(b) transmembrane transport
(c) symplast pathway
(d) apoplast pathway
Answer: (b)
8. Transpiration is a phenomenon pertaining to
(a) Activated transport
(b) Diffusion
(c) Osmosis
(d) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: (b)
9. When placed in water, raisins swell up as a result of
(a) Adsorption
(b) Plasmolysis
(c) Endosmosis
(d) Diffusion
Answer: (c)
10. A bottle filled with previously moistened mustard seeds and water was screw-capped tightly and placed in a corner. After 30 minutes, it suddenly blew up. This is the process involved
(a) DPD
(b) Osmosis
(c) Imbibition
(d) Diffusion
Answer: (c)
Aba And Other Growth Regulators
1. Abscission zone can be induced for formation by
(a) abscisic acid
(b) cytokinins
(c) gibberellins
(d) auxins
Answer: (a)
2. Presence of this in the seed is linked with dormancy
(a) abscisic acid
(b) gibberellic acid
(c) starch
(d) ethylene
Answer: (a)
3. Abscisic acid treatment results in
(a) root elongation
(b) stomatal closure
(c) stem elongation
(d) leaf expansion
Answer: (b)
4. ABA contains
(a) one asymmetric and two symmetric carbon atoms
(b) one symmetric and two asymmetric carbon atoms
(c) one asymmetric carbon atom
(d) one symmetric carbon atom
Answer: (c)
5. Morphactins are
(a) synthetic auxins
(b) synthetic gibberellins
(c) synthetic growth regulators
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
6. Dormin is a
(a) abscisic acid
(b) growth promoter
(c) auxin
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
7. This is wound hormone
(a) phyllocaline
(b) auxin
(c) hormone only
(d) necrohormone
Answer: (d)
8. This is a plant hormone
(a) acetylene
(b) dormin
(c) formalin
(d) all of these
Answer: (b)
9. This is a naturally occurring growth inhibitor
(a) NAA
(b) IAA
(c) GA
(d) ABA
Answer: (d)
10. Abscisic acid regulates
(a) leaf fall and dormancy
(b) cell division
(c) cell elongation and cell wall formation
(d) shoot elongation
Answer: (a)
Multiple Allelism
1. A person with antigens A and B and no antibodies belongs to blood group or in which blood group antibodies are absent
(a) O
(b) AB
(c) B
(d) A
Answer: (b)
2. Inheritance of ABO blood group system is an example of
(a) dominance
(b) epistasis
(c) partial dominance
(d) multiple allelism
Answer: (d)
3. During the serological test in which anti-human serum is mixed with the blood of another animal, the blood of this animal gives the thickest precipitate
(a) mule
(b) dog
(c) chimpanzee
(d) gibbon
Answer: (c)
4. In disputed parentage, blood group analysis of mother, alleged father and child can
(a) not be of any use
(b) only prove that he cannot be the father
(c) certainly prove a man to the father
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
5. This is the genotype of blood group A
(a) IA IA|
(b) IA IO|
(c) IB IB|
(d) IA IA| or IA IO|
Answer: (d)
6. If a patient with blood group B requires an immediate blood transfusion, this type can be given
(a) AB and B
(b) AB and A
(c) AB and O
(d) B and O
Answer: (d)
7. In men, this is genetically dominant
(a) Albinism
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Rh positive
(d) color blindness
Answer: (c)
8. Color of the skin in humans is regulated by
(a) polygenic effect
(b) lethal genes
(c) multiple genes
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)
9. The recessive character typically is expressed only when present in a double recessive condition. But, a single recessive gene can express itself in humans when genes are found on
(a) either on autosome or X chromosome
(b) X chromosome of male
(c) X chromosome of female
(d) any autosome
Answer: (b)
10. Two allelic genes are situated on
(a) any two chromosomes
(b) two non-homologous chromosomes
(c) two homologous chromosomes
(d) same chromosomes
Answer: (c)
Hardy Weinberg Law
1. In the Caucasian population of the US, 1 in 2500 babies is affected by a recessive condition – cystic fibrosis. In this population, the frequency of the dominant allele is
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.36
(c) 0.56
(d) 0.98
Answer: (d)
2. A sampled “a” population has 36% of homozygous recessive genotype (aa). Then the frequency of allele “a” is
(a) 0%
(b) 20%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
Answer: (c)
Explore: NEET 2022 Answer Key With Solutions
3. 360 out of 1000 individuals in a population have a genotype of AA while 480 have Aa genotype. The rest 160 belong to aa. Frequency of allele A in this population is
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.4
Answer: (b)
4. A gene locus has two alleles A and a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population is
(a) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(b) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(c) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(d) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
Answer: (a)
5. What does p2 in the below mentioned Hardy-Weinberg equation indicate?
(p+q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2
(a) individuals that are heterozygous dominant
(b) individuals having a lethal allele
(c) individuals that are homozygous dominant
(d) individuals that are homozygous recessive
Answer: (c)
6. 25 individuals in a population are homozygous dominant, then the individuals that are expected to be homozygous recessive are
(a) 100
(b) 75
(c) 50
(d) 25
Answer: (d)
7. Consider a population of sheep to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The allele for black wool(w) has an allele frequency of 0.81 while the allele for white wool(W) has an allele frequency of 0.19. Then the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population is
(a) 4%
(b) 15%
(c) 31%
(d) 66%
Answer: (c)
8. This condition is essential for a population to be in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(a) random mating
(b) no mutations
(c) large population
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
9. This statement describes the Hardy-Weinberg law the best
(a) it is impossible to predict expected allele frequencies mathematically
(b) in large populations, dominant alleles become more prevalent
(c) allele frequency changes over a period of time in a large population
(d) mechanism of inheritance in a large population does not change allele frequency
Answer: (d)
10. This is true of the population which are included in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(a) entities migrate constantly
(b) populations should be limited and small
(c) mating is random
(d) process of natural selection is occurring
Answer: (c)
11. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium operates in the absence of
(a) Gene flow
(b) Mutation
(c) Natural selection
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
As per the law, in a population, the alleles and genotype frequencies stays constant from one to another generation in the absence of all the above-mentioned evolutionary influences.
Phylum Aschelminthes
1. Ascaris has ____________________ cells in the excretory system
(a) Green gland
(b) Flame
(c) Nephron
(d) Renette
Answer: (d)
2. Syncytial epidermis is found in_______.
(a) Ascaris
(b) Metaphire
(c) Housefly
(d) Periplaneta
Answer: (a)
3. ______________ is known as a coelom derived from blastocoel
(a) Enterocoel
(b) Haemocoel
(c) Pseudocoel
(d) Schizocoel
Answer: (c)
4. This is the basis on which female Ascaris can be identified.
(a) Two spicules found at the posterior end
(b) Presence of postanal and preanal papillae
(c) Straight posterior end
(d) Common cloacal aperture
Answer: (c)
5. In Ascaris, the period of incubation outside the human body is
(a) More than 30 days
(b) 15-30 days
(c) 8-14 days
(d) 4-8 days
Answer: (b)
6. In the life cycle of Ascaris, the infective stage is
(a) Third lava
(b) Second larva
(c) Cyst
(d) Fertilized egg
Answer: (b)
7. The body cavity of Ascaris is pseudocoel as
(a) it is filled with pseudocoelomic fluid
(b) has very little parenchyma
(c) contains large cells termed pseudocoelocytes
(d) bound extremely by muscle layer and internally by intestines
Answer: (d)
8. Ascaris lumbricoides is found living in the intestine of
(a) Pig
(b) Homo sapiens
(c) Monkey
(d) Goat and sheep
Answer: (b)
9. The process of morphological differentiating male and female sexes is known as
(a) sexual dimorphism
(b) polymorphism
(c) variation
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)
10. This has no alternate host
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Tapeworm
(c) Fasiola hepatica
(d) Ascaris lumbricoides
Answer: (d)
Apoptosis
1. This is an extracellular messenger of apoptosis
(a) tumor necrosis factor
(b) serine
(c) translation inhibitor
(d) ribozyme
Answer: (a)
2. This is concerned with the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis
(a) cytochrome d
(b) cytochrome c
(c) cytochrome b
(d) cytochrome a
Answer: (b)
3. Apoptotic bodies can be recognized with the presence of these on the surface
(a) phosphatidyl tyrosine
(b) phosphatidylinositol
(c) phosphatidylcholine
(d) phosphatidylserine
Answer: (d)
4. Apoptotic cells detach due to the inactivation of this
(a) PKC
(b) PKB
(c) RAF1
(d) FAK
Answer: (d)
5. Shrinking of the nucleus is caused when this inactivates
(a) gelsolin
(b) tubulin
(c) actin
(d) lamin
Answer: (d)
6. This cell organelle participates actively in animal apoptosis
(a) nucleus
(b) vacuoles
(c) mitochondria
(d) chloroplast
Answer: (c)
7. This can stimulate cytochrome release from mitochondria
(a) Akt
(b) Bid
(c) Bad
(d) Smac
Answer: (b)
8. This cannot be killed by apoptosis
(a) immune cells
(b) cells with DNA damage
(c) cancer cells
(d) a cell infected with viruses
Answer: (c)
9. This is an anti-apoptotic protein
(a) Bim
(b) Bcl-Xs
(c) Bfl 1
(d) NOXA
Answer: (c)
10. This is an active cell death process
(a) necrosis
(b) lysis
(c) apoptosis
(d) senescence
Answer: (c)
Mitochondria
1. Cristae in mitochondria serves as sites for
(a) oxidation reduction reaction
(b) protein synthesis
(c) macromolecules breakdown
(d) flavoproteins are phosphorylated
Answer: (a)
2. Pick the incorrect statement
(a) mitochondrial DNA is known as mtDNA
(b) mitochondria is the powerhouse of the cell
(c) mitochondria is the site for calvin cycle
(d) mitochondria is the site for krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: (c)
3. Inner membrane of mitochondria is rich in phospholipid _______
(a) phosphatidylserine
(b) phosphatidylinositol
(c) phosphatidylcholine
(d) cardiolipin
Answer: (d)
4. Mt DNA is
(a) simple single stranded circular DNA molecule
(b) simple double stranded circular DNA molecule
(c) simple double stranded linear DNA molecule
(d) simple single stranded linear DNA molecule
Answer: (b)
5. Inner mitochondrial membrane has
(a) cytochrome oxidase complex
(b) b-c 1 complex
(c) NADH dehydrogenase complex
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
6. This is not a function of mitochondria
(a) fatty acid breakdown
(b) non-shivering thermogenesis
(c) electron transport chain and associated ATP production
(d) glycolysis and associated ATP production
Answer: (d)
7. This statement is incorrect about mitochondrial membrane
(a) outer membrane is permeable to all molecule types
(b) outer membrane is resembles a sieve
(c) outer membrane embeds enzymes of electron transfer chain
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
8. Oxysomes of F0-F1 particles take place on
(a) Chloroplast surface
(b) Thylakoid
(c) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) Mitochondrial surface
Answer: (c)
9. Pick the incorrect statement
(a) generally, chloroplasts are larger than mitochondria
(b) mitochondria and chloroplasts both have DNA
(c) mitochondria and chloroplasts both contain an outer and inner membrane
(d) mitochondria and chloroplasts both have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bound by thylakoid membrane
Answer: (d)
10. Typically, the inner membrane of mitochondria is highly convoluted to form a series of infolding known as
(a) grana
(b) thylakoids
(c) cristae
(d) lamellae
Answer: (c)
Pancreas
1. Inhibition of gastric secretions is brought about by
(a) GIP
(b) Cholecystokinin
(c) Gastrin
(d) Pancreozymin
Answer: (a)
2. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans is
(a) trypsin
(b) enterokinase
(c) trypsinogen
(d) chymotrypsin
Answer: (c)
3. Pancreatitis can be produced by the following drug
(a) Ciprofloxacin
(b) Nalidixic acid
(c) Colchicine
(d) L-Asparaginase
Answer: (d)
4. Gasless abdomen in X-ray is a sign of
(a) Ulcerative colitis
(b) Acute pancreatitis
(c) Intussusception
(d) Necrotizing enterocolitis
Answer: (b)
5. This is a major product of chief cells
(a) Mucus
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Pepsinogen
(d) HCl
Answer: (c)
6. The islets of Langerhans are found in
(a) Stomach
(b) Alimentary canal
(c) Pancreas
(d) Liver
Answer: (c)
7. Secretion of pancreatic juice is triggered by
(a) secretin
(b) enterogastrone
(c) gastrin
(d) enterokinase
Answer: (a)
8. This is a common passage for bile and pancreatic juice
(a) stomach
(b) ampulla
(c) duct of oddi
(d) duct of wirsung
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Also referred to as the Ampulla of Vater, the Hepato-pancreatic duct is formed by the coming together of the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct. Consequently, this serves as the common passage for the pancreatic juice and bile.
9. Pancreas is not
(a) Elongated organ
(b) Compound
(c) Exocrine portion secretes pancreatic juice
(d) Located above duodenum
Answer: (d)
10. This is most diagnostic investigation for acute pancreatitis
(a) Serum LDH
(b) Serum amylase
(c) Serum Lipase
(d) Serum P-isoamylase
Answer: (c)
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