Biology MCQs Test P 31

Ozone Layer Depletion


1. Good ozone is found in the

(a) stratosphere

(b) ionosphere

(c) troposphere

(d) mesosphere

Answer: (a)



2. This is not the consequence of ozone layer depletion

(a) malignant melanoma – skin cancer type

(b) increased ultraviolet radiations

(c) tides

(d) cyanobacteria are sensitive to UV rays and would be affected by its increase

Answer: (c)

3. Greenhouses gases causing a rise of 3℃ rise in the overall global temperature in the past century are CFCs. The CFC used in refrigerators is

(a) Ammonia

(b) Freon

(c) Methane

(d) carbon dioxide

Answer: (b)

4. Main cause of ozone holes and its depletion is

(a) propellants

(b) foam-blowing agents

(c) halocarbon refrigerants

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

5. Ozone can be destroyed by the following free radical(s)

(a) chlorine radical (Cl)

(b) hydroxyl radicals (OH)

(c) nitric oxide radical (NO)

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

6. Following form(s) of oxygen is/are involved in ozone-oxygen cycle

(a) triatomic oxygen (O3)

(b) diatomic oxygen (O2)

(c) atomic oxygen (O)

(d) all of these

Answer: (d)

7. Ozone-depleting substance chiefly utilized in

(I) chimneys

(II) all of the human activities

(III) burning fossil fuels

(IV) cooling and refrigeration applications and in the manufacturer of foam products

(a) All

(b) Only IV

(c) Only I, II and III

(d) Only I and II

Answer: (b)

8. Montreal protocol is related to the

(a) food security

(b) global warming

(c) sustainable development

(d) ozone layer depletion

Answer: (d)

9. This is a major risk linked with extreme ultraviolet rays through the atmosphere as a result of ozone layer depletion

(a) neurological disorder

(b) digestive system gets damaged

(c) increased liver cancer

(d) increased skin cancer

Answer: (d)

10. UV rays is higher in summer as

(a) during summer, ozone is more in the atmosphere

(b) sun is busy in summer specially

(c) sun is closer to planet earth so UV rays have a shorter distance to travel and reach us

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)


Ecological Succession

1. In ecological succession, the intermediate developmental phase is known as

(a) ecesis

(b) climax

(c) nudation

(d) sere

Answer: (d)

2. This is true about secondary succession

(a) follows primary succession

(b) takes place on a deforested site

(c) is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively slower pace

(d) begins on a bare rock

Answer: (b)

3. Lithosphere serves as a reservoir for

(a) nitrogen cycles

(b) carbon cycles

(c) oxygen cycles

(d) phosphorus cycles

Answer: (d)

4. This is not a climax vegetation

(a) grasses

(b) savannah

(c) forests

(d) hydrophytes

Answer: (d)

5. This about ecological succession is incorrect

(a) food chain relationships become more complex

(b) species diversity increases as succession proceeds

(c) role of decomposers becomes all the more important

(d) is a random process

Answer: (d)

6. An example of plants occupying the second stage of hydrosere is

(a) Salix

(b) Vallisneria

(c) Azolla

(d) Typha

Answer: (b)

7. On the sand, ecological succession is

(a) halosere

(b) xerosere

(c) hydrosere

(d) psammosere

Answer: (d)

8. Order of basic processes involved in succession is

(a) invasion -> stabilization -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> nudation

(b) nudation -> stabilization -> completion and coaction -> invasion -> reaction

(c) invasion -> nudation -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> stabilization

(d) nudation -> invasion -> completion and coaction -> reaction -> stabilization

Answer: (d)

9. Process of the successful establishment of species in a new area is known as

(a) climax

(b) sere

(c) ecesis

(d) invasion

Answer: (c)

10. In ecological succession, the final stable community is known as

(a) climax community

(b) ultimate community

(c) final community

(d) seral community

Answer: (a)


Infertility

1. This is a major reason for infertility in women

(a) Anovulation

(b) Weight

(c) Age

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

2. Boosting the intake of _________ can help women trying to conceive

(a) Potassium

(b) Folic acid

(c) Lycopene

(d) Nickel

Answer: (b)

3. Nerve supply of ovary is through

(a) Sacral fibers

(b) Pudendal nerve

(c) Branches of renal and aortic plexus

(d) none of the above

Answer: (c)

4. Menstrual phase bleeding is due to

(a) necrosin

(b) fibrinolysis

(c) menotoxin

(d) vasoconstriction and ischaemia

Answer: (d)

5. Fertility in women is impaired by

(a) Hernia

(b) High blood pressure

(c) Obesity

(d) Gallstones

Answer: (c)

6. Infertility is when a couple fails to conceive after

(a) 4 years of unprotected sex

(b) 3years of unprotected sex

(c) 2 years of unprotected sex

(d) 1 year of unprotected sex

Answer: (d)

7. Procedures used to treat infertility are

(a) ICSI – Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection

(b) IVF – In Vitro Fertilization

(c) IUI – Intrauterine insemination

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

8. Right ovarian artery arises from

(a) Uterine artery

(b) Aorta

(c) Renal artery

(d) Common iliac artery

Answer: (b)

9. This condition impairs infertility

(a) PCOD

(b) Fibroids

(c) Endometriosis

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

10. In women, this sexually transmitted disease can result in infertility

(a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

(b) Pelvic inflammatory disease

(c) Genital herpes

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)


 Implantation and Gastrulation

1. Which of the following organ is formed during gastrulation?

(a) Gill

(b) Vitelline membrane

(c) Heart

(d) Archenteron

Answer: (d)

2. Mesoderm gives rise to all the structures except ______.

(a) Gonads

(b) Circulatory system

(c) Nervous system

(d) Muscular system

Answer: (c)

3. In human females, the fertilized eggs get implanted in the uterus after ________.

(a) One month of fertilization

(b) Two months of fertilization

(c) Seven days of fertilization

(d) Three weeks of fertilization

Answer: (c)

4. Brain, nerve cells and spinal cord or the central nervous system develops from embryonic ______.

(a) Mesoderm

(b) Endoderm

(c) Ectoderm

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (c)

5. Which of the following options contains only the mesodermal structures?

(a) Heart, blood, bones, notochord

(b) Heart, blood, muscles, liver

(c) Notochord, blood, liver, muscles

(d) Liver, heart, bones, blood

Answer: (a)

6. Implantation is the process of__________.

(a) Attachment of blastocyst to the uterine wall

(b) Egg movement

(c) Degeneration of egg

(d) Egg fertilization

Answer: (a)

7. Which of the following embryo has a parasitic mode of nutrition?

(a) Mammalian embryo

(b) Bird’s embryo

(c) Amphibian embryo

(d) Reptilian embryo

Answer: (a)

8. which of the following events is likely to take place, if the nuclei from an 8-celled stage of an embryo are transplanted into enucleated eggs?

(a) Recipient egg dies

(b) Donor nuclei die in the new environment

(c) Cleavage occurs but is arrested after some time

(d) Formation of the viable embryo in the recipient eggs

Answer: (d)

9. Egg implantation is followed by______.

(a) Parturition

(b) Copulation

(c) Fertilization

(d) Gestation

Answer: (d)

10. Pseudopregnancy is a physiological condition, comparable to normal pregnancy except that there is no__________.

(a) endometrial changes

(b) developing foetus

(c) corpus luteum

(d) developing ovum

Answer: (b)


Cleavage Biology

1. This is also known as meroblastic cleavage

(a) Partial

(b) Unequal holoblastic

(c) Equal holoblastic

(d) Superficial

Answer: (a)

2. The type of cleavage found in insects

(a) Holoblastic

(b) Discoidal

(c) Superficial

(d) Meroblastic

Answer: (c)

3. Discoidal and superficial are which types of cleavage?

(a) Unequal holoblastic

(b) equal holoblastic

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) Meroblastic

Answer: (d)

4. If the first cleavage furrow divides zygote completely into two, the cleavage type is

(a) meroblastic

(b) holoblastic

(c) equatorial

(d) radial

Answer: (b)

5. The only human system that is derived from all the three germ layers is

(a) Nervous system

(b) Digestive system

(c) Respiratory system

(d) Excretory system

Answer: (b)

6. The fertilized egg divides by the process of

(a) Oogenesis

(b) Cleavage

(c) Regeneration

(d) Invagination

Answer: (b)

7. If an unfertilized egg is pricked with a microneedle, it will

(a) transform into a tadpole at a faster rate

(b) die immediately

(c) will remain undivided

(d) start dividing

Answer: (d)

8. A freshly unfertilized egg of hen contains

(a) 10,000 cells

(b) 1,000 cells

(c) 100 cells

(d) one cell

Answer: (d)

9. How many cleavages are completed in the 16-celled stage of an egg?

(a) 12

(b) 8

(c) 4

(d) 3

Answer: (c)

10. The spindle in the determinate cleavage is

(a) Horizontal

(b) Oblique

(c) Vertical

(d) Sub-equatorial

Answer: (b)


Plasma Membrane

1. This is not the function of plasma membrane

(a) Energy transduction

(b) Intercellular interactions

(c) Responding to external stimuli

(d) Assisting in chromosome segregation

Answer: (d)

2. In the plasma membrane, carbohydrates

(a) always faces outwards, towards extracellular space

(b) directed to all sides in the membrane randomly

(c) always faces to the lumen of cells

(d) always faces inward to the nonpolar portion of the membrane

Answer: (a)

3. In the plasma membrane, Glycolipids are usually situated in

(a) cannot be predicted, it varies according to the cell types

(b) inner leaflet of the plasma membrane

(c) the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane

(d) evenly distributed in both outer and inner leaves of plasma membrane

Answer: (c)

4. The major interaction responsible for stabilizing plasma membrane

(a) hydrophobic interactions

(b) hydrophilic interactions

(c) covalent bonds

(d) ionic bonds

Answer: (a)

5. In the plasma membrane, lipid molecules are arranged in

(a) head parallel

(b) alternate

(c) scattered

(d) series

Answer: (a)

6. Ion carriers are located in

(a) Plasma membranes

(b) Cell wall

(c) Nucleus

(d) Cellular space

Answer: (a)

7. In the plasma membrane, the best method to study the properties of integral membrane proteins is

(a) atomic force microscopy

(b) freeze-fracture analysis and electron microscopy

(c) cryo-sectioning and electron microscopy

(d) all of the above

Answer: (b)

8. In the plant cell, this layer is present nearest to the plasma membrane

(a) Tonoplast

(b) Middle lamella

(c) secondary wall

(d) primary wall

Answer: (c)

9. Beetroot, if kept in cold water, anthocyanin does not come out due to plasma membrane

(a) Dead

(b) differentially permeable

(c) permeable to anthocyanins

(d) Impermeable to anthocyanins

Answer: (d)

10. Plasma membrane is made up of

(a) A protein, a lipid and a cellulose layer

(b) Bimolecular lipid layer surrounded by protein layers

(c) A protein layer between two lipid layers

(d) A lipid layer between two protein layers

Answer: (b)


Internal Structure of Root Stem and Leaf

1. Collenchymatous hypodermis is characteristics of

(a) Hydrophytes

(b) Monocot and dicot stem

(c) Monocot stem

(d) Dicot stem

Answer: (d)

2. The lacunae in the vascular bundles of monocot stem is

(a) Metaxylem

(b) A mucilage canal

(c) Lysigenous water cavity

(d) A large sized protoxylem

Answer: (c)

3. The protoxylem in its midrid bundle in a vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf

(a) is not distinct

(b) faces the ventral epidermis of the leaf

(c) faces the dorsal epidermis of the leaf

(d) is surrounded by metaxylem

Answer: (c)

4. This is not a characteristic feature of anatomy of dicotyledonous root

(a) Pith little or absent

(b) Secondary growth

(c) Radial vascular bundles

(d) Vascular bundles 15-20

Answer: (d)

5. Vascular bundles are scattered in

(a) Dicot stem

(b) Dicot root

(c) Bryophytes

(d) Monocot stem

Answer: (d)

6. The correct situation of mesophyll in isobilateral grass leaf is shown by

(a) Palisade along both the surface

(b) Undifferentiated mesophyll

(c) Palisade towards abaxial surface

(d) Palisade towards adaxial surface

Answer: (b)

7. Well-developed pith is found in

(a) Monocot root and Dicot stem

(b) Dicot root and Dicot stem

(c) Dicot root and Monocot stem

(d) Dicot and Monocot stems

Answer: (a)

8. In monocot leaf

(a) Veins form a network

(b) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma

(c) Mesophyll is well differentiated into these parts

(d) Bulliform cells are absent from epidermis

Answer: (b)

9. In orchids, Velamen tissues is found in

(a) Leaves

(b) Root

(c) Flowers

(d) Shoot

Answer: (b)

10. Polyarch and exarch vascular bundles occur in

(a) Dicot stem

(b) Monocot stem

(c) Dicot root

(d) Monocot root

Answer: (d)


Hormonal Control Digestion

1. Which of the following statement about Enterogastrone?

(a) The hormone secreted by the intestinal mucosa

(b) The hormone secreted by mucosa

(c) The hormone secreted by related to digestion

(d) The hormone secreted by the gastric mucosa

Answer: (a)

2. Juice containing sodium glycocholate is secreted under the influence of _______.

(a) Enterogastrone

(b) Cholecystokinin

(c) Enterokinin

(d) Secretin

Answer: (b)

3. Gall bladder contractions and Pancreatic secretion are triggered by_______

(a) Enterogastrone

(b) Enterocrinin

(c) Gastrin

(d) Cholecystokinin

Answer: (d)

4. Cholecystokinin hormone which is released from the intestinal epithelium triggers___.

(a) Release of bile from the gallbladder

(b) Conversion of protein to peptones

(c) Conversion of fats into glycerol

(d) Secretion of pancreatic juice

Answer: (a)

5. The hormone secretin triggers ______.

(a) Gallbladder

(b) Pancreas

(c) Crypts of Lieberkuhn

(d) Stomach

Answer: (b)

6. _________regulates the enzymatic quantity in pancreatic juice.

(a) Cholecystokinin

(b) Gastrin

(c) Pancreozymin

(d) Secretin

Answer: (c)

7. In a mammal, the release of pancreatic juice from the pancreas is triggered by ______.

(a) Cholecystokinin

(b) Trypsinogen

(c) Secretin

(d) Enterokinase

Answer: (c)

8. Which of the following secretes secretin hormone?

(a) Oesophagus

(b) Ileum

(c) Duodenum

(d) Stomach

Answer: (c)

9. The hormone gastrin is secreted by_______.

(a) Pancreas

(b) Liver

(c) Stomach

(d) Intestine

Answer: (c)

10. Secretion of gastric juice is controlled by ______.

(a) Cholecystokinin

(b) Gastrin

(c) Enterogastrone

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)


Diabetes Mellitus and Cardiovascular Diseases

1. The probable cause of Erythroblastosis fetalis can be

(a) Bleeding

(b) Haemophilia

(c) Adjoining of RBC

(d) Diapedesis

Answer: (c)

2. This can help on the diagnosis of the genetic basis of a disorder

(a) PCR

(b) ELISA

(c) ABO blood group

(d) NMR

Answer: (a)

3. This measure does not help to prevent diabetes complications

(a) controlling blood lipids and blood pressure

(b) Prompt detection of diabetic eye and kidney disease

(c) Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet

(d) controlling blood glucose

Answer: (c)

4. The disease as a result of prolonged clotting is due to lack of plasma thromboplastin component (PTC) necessary to the formation of thromboplastin, is

(a) Haemophilia

(b) Hypoprothrombinemia

(c) Christmas disease

(d) Stuart disease

Answer: (c)

5. This diabetes drug acts by decreasing the amount of glucose produced by the liver

(a) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

(b) Sulfonylureas

(c) Biguanides

(d) Meglitinides

Answer: (c)

6. Presence of RBC in urine is known as

(a) Proteinuria

(b) Hematuria

(c) Urolithiasis

(d) Nephritis

Answer: (b)

7. The disease characterized by extreme muscle weakness and brownish pigmentation of the buccal cavity and skin is

(a) Grave’s disease

(b) Myxoedema

(c) Addison’s disease

(d) Cushing’s disease

Answer: (c)

8. This statement regarding Angina is true

(a) blood flow is unaffected

(b) most common in children

(c) inadequate supply of oxygen to the heart muscles

(d) heart stops beating

Answer: (c)

9. Pick the wrongly matched pair

(a) heart failure – not enough blood supply to the body

(b) angina pectoris – acute chest pain

(c) cardiac arrest – narrowing of the lumen

(d) heart attack – not enough blood supply to cardiac muscles

Answer: (c)

10. This disease is not related to the circulatory system

(a) Diabetes mellitus

(b) Hypertension

(c) Diphtheria

(d) Coronary thrombosis

Answer: (c)


Self Evaluation Test Human Health and Disease

1. The low RBC count is seen in anaemia and ________.

(a) Myxoedema

(b) Influenza

(c) Typhoid

(d) Leukaemia

Answer: (d)

2. A child is suffering from Kwashiorkor and if this child is compared with other marasmus children then what additional symptoms are present in Kwashiorkor child?

(a) Oedema

(b) Wasted muscles

(c) A decrease in body weight

(d) Impaired physical growth

Answer: (c)

3. Chronic anaemia and multiple sclerosis are

(a) Allergic diseases

(b)  Hormonal diseases

(c) Autoimmune diseases

(d) Hereditary diseases

Answer: (c)

4. Which one of the following statements is correct about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

(a) These are produced in the thyroid

(b) These are originated in lymphoid tissues

(c) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris

(d) There are three main types – cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells

Answer: (b)

5. The antibody-dependent cytotoxicity is seen in ________.

(a) Local anaphylaxis

(b) Generalise anaphylaxis

(c) Immune complex reaction

(d) Non-compatible-blood transfusion

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following protein causes the dilation of blood vessels?

(a) Histamine

(b) Pyrogens

(c) Interferon

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

7. Parkinson’s disease is caused due to deficiency of ________.

(a) Dopamine

(b) GABA

(c) Acetylcholine

(d) Endorphins

Answer: (a)

8. Gaucher’s disease is linked with________.

(a) Malnutrition

(b) Abnormal fat metabolism

(c) Abnormal protein metabolism

(d) Abnormal carbohydrate metabolism

Answer: (b)

9. LSD is obtained from _______.

(a) Cannabis Sativa

(b) Claviceps purpurea

(c) Papaver somniferum

(d) Erythroxylon coca

Answer: (b)

10. Infectious proteins are present in ________.

(a) Prions

(b) Viroids

(c) Gemini viruses

(d) Satellite viruses

Answer: (a)

Yeast and Albugo


1. Yeast produces an enzyme complex, which is responsible for fermentation. Which is the enzyme complex?

(a) Zymase

(b) Dehydrogenase

(c) Aldolase

(d) Invertase

Answer: (a)

2. In yeast, the sexual reproduction is by conjugation. After fusion, the zygotic nucleus divides meiotically and forms haploid spores. The unicellular structure with haploid spores is

(a) Gametangium

(b) Zoosporangium

(c) Sporangium

(d) Ascus

Answer: (d)

3. The rising of dough is due to

(a) sulphur dioxide

(b) hydrogen

(c) carbon dioxide

(d) oxygen

Answer: (c)

4. In manufacture of bread, it becomes porous due to the liberation of CO2 by the action of

(a) Yeast

(b) Virus

(c) Protozoans

(d) Bacteria

Answer: (a)

5. The food reserve in Albugo usually is

(a) Fat

(b) Protein granules

(c) Glycogen

(d) Volutin granules

Answer: (c)

6. This statement on Albugo is incorrect

(a) Non-flagellated female gametes

(b) Biflagellated zoospores

(c) Biflagellated male gametes

(d) All of these

Answer: (c)

7. The species causing white rust of cruciferae has a botanical name, it is

(a) Pythium debaryanum

(b) Peronospora parasitica

(c) Albugo candida

(d) Puccinia graminis

Answer: (c)

8. Yeast is not included in protozoans but in fungi because

(a) it has eukaryotic organization

(b) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food material as starch

(c) Some fungal hyphae grow in such a way that they give the appearance of pseudomycelium

(d) it has no chlorophyll

Answer: (a)

9. This is used in the preparation of alcohol

(a) Saccharomyces

(b) Acetobacter

(c) Lactobacillus

(d) Penicillium

Answer: (a)

10. Fungus without mycelium is

(a) Agaricus

(b) Albugo

(c) Puccinia

(d) Saccharomyces

Answer: (d)


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