Epithelial Tissue
1. Find the correct match
(a) The moist surface of the buccal cavity has glandular epithelium
(b) The tubular parts of nephrons have cuboidal epithelium
(c) The inner surface of bronchioles have squamous epithelium
(d) The inner lining of salivary ducts have ciliated epithelium
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2. The ciliated columnar epithelium is present in
(a) bronchioles and Fallopian tube
(b) bile duct and oesophagus
(c) Fallopian tube and urethra
(d) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
3. Which types of cells line blood vessels?
(a) columnar epithelium
(b) smooth muscle tissue
(c) connective tissue
(d) squamous epithelium
4. Gap, tight and adhering junctions are found in
(a) epithelial tissue
(b) connective tissue
(c) muscular tissue
(d) neural tissue
5. Which types of epithelial cells form Stratum germinativum?
(a) cuboidal
(b) ciliated
(c) columnar
(d) squamous
6. An epithelial tissue having thin flat and closely packed cells that are arranged edge to edge are found in
(a) the inner lining of cheeks
(b) the inner lining of the stomach
(c) the inner lining of the fallopian tube
(d) the outer surface of the ovary
7. Which of the following layer has actively dividing cells?
(a) stratum lucidum
(b) stratum corneum
(c) stratum compactum
(d) stratum malpighi
8. Tissue having very less or no intercellular matrix is
(a) epithelial
(b) connective
(c) cardiac
(d) muscular
9. The inner lining of the vagina, urethra and oesophagus is made up of
(a) Columnar epithelium
(b) Stratified squamous epithelium
(c) Squamous epithelium
(d) Ciliated epithelium
10. Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in
(a) Thin bronchioles
(b) Choroid of eye
(c) Sweat gland
(d) All of the above
Answer
Krebs Cycle
1. Product of Krebs cycle essential for oxidative phosphorylation is _______
(a) NADPH and ATP
(b) Acetyl CoA
(c) CO2 and oxaloacetate
(d) NADH and FADH2
Answer: (d)
2. A single molecule of glucose generates _________ molecules of acetyl CoA, which enters the Krebs cycle.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer: (c)
3. ___________ accepts hydrogen from malate
(a) FAD
(b) NAD
(c) NADP
(d) FMN
Answer: (b)
4. Which of the intermediate of the Kreb’s cycle is utilised in the formation of amino acids?
(a) Citric acid
(b) Malic acid
(c) Isocitric acid
(d) 𝛼-ketoglutaric acid
Answer: (d)
5. Krebs cycle occurs in aerobic respiration due to
(a) Electron transport chain requires aerobic conditions to operate
(b) Oxygen is a reactant
(c) Oxygen has a catalytic function
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
6. Acetyl CoA is formed from pyruvate by__________ reaction
(a) Dehydration
(b) Reduction
(c) Oxidative decarboxylation
(d) Dephosphorylation
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following is not formed during the Krebs cycle?
(a) Lactate
(b) Isocitrate
(c) Succinate
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
8. The entry of pyruvate into the TCA cycle is inhibited by the presence of a high cellular concentration of
(a) Pyruvate
(b) NADH
(c) Coenzyme A
(d) AMP
Answer: (b)
9. ATP synthesis is powered by
(a) Coenzyme motive force
(b) cAMP
(c) proton gradient
(d) GTP hydrolysis
Answer: (c)
10. FAD is reduced in which of the reaction of the Kreb’s cycle?
(a) Isocitrate to oxaloacetate
(b) Succinyl CoA to Succinate
(c) Fumarate to malate
(d) Succinate to fumarate
Answer: (d)
Earthworm Digestive System
1. The earthworm is placed under the group
(a) Polychaeta
(b) Hirudinea
(c) Oligochaeta
(d) Crustacea
Answer: (c)
2. The parasite found in the seminal vesicle of earthworms are
(a) Nosema
(b) Sarcocystis
(c) Monocystis
(d) Nyctotherus
Answer: (c)
3. The typhlosole in earthworm is related to
(a) respiration
(b) excretion
(c) absorption
(d) reproduction
Answer: (c)
4. Colour of the body in earthworms is due to the presence of
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Blood
(c) Porphyrin
(d) Haemocyanin
Answer: (c)
5. Region of earthworm that is a forest of nephridia is
(a) Pharyngeal region
(b) Clitellar region
(c) Typhlosolar region
(d) Intestinal region
Answer: (b)
6. Chloragogen cells are found in
(a) Blood of earthworm
(b) The coelomic fluid of the earthworm
(c) Blood of cockroach
(d) The body wall of leucosolenia
Answer: (b)
7. This animal does not show any metamorphosis of larval stage
(a) Asteria
(b) Musca domestica
(c) Pheretima Posthuma
(d) Butterfly
Answer: (c)
8. The most effective organ for food digestion in earthworm is
(a) Mouth
(b) Buccal cavity
(c) Pharynx
(d) Stomach
Answer: (c)
9. The typhlosole found in Pheretima occurs in
(a) Stomach
(b) Intestine
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Gizzard
Answer: (b)
10. In earthworm, the mouth is located on
(a) Stomium
(b) Peristomium
(c) Prostomium
(d) Protostomium
Answer: (b)
Neural Communication
1. The mode of communication between the neurons by sending electrical impulses known as _______.
(a) Membrane potentials
(b) Neuromodulators
(c) Neurotransmitters
(d) Action potentials
Answer: (d)
2. If the cell stimulation is strong, then the strength of the action potential produced would be ______.
(a) Weaker than the produced by weak stimulation
(b) Stronger than the produced by weak stimulation
(c) Double then the produced by the weak stimulation
(d) No different to the produced by weak stimulation
Answer: (d)
3. Dopamine, serotonin and noradrenaline are collectively called _______.
(a) Amines
(b) Hallucinogens
(c) Anxiolytics
(d) Neurotransmitters
Answer: (a)
4. The excess amount of produced neurotransmitters by presynaptic neurons is __________.
(a) Taken up by postsynaptic neurons
(b) Recycled back into the presynaptic neuron
(c) Removed and taken around the rest of the body
(d) Eliminated by substances contained within the cell body
Answer: (b)
5. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter enabling communication between muscles and nerves. In case of an interruption in the interaction between acetylcholine and acetylcholine receptor sites on the muscles, this condition can occur in _______.
(a) Botulism
(b) Myasthenia gravis
(c) Multiple sclerosis
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (b)
6. Which of the following disorder causes dopamine neurons to die?
(a) Seizure disorder
(b) Multiple sclerosis
(c)Parkinson’s disease
(d) Lou Gehrig’s disease
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following is a genetic disorder that induces neurons in the brain to drain away and die?
(a) Poliomyelitis
(b) Encephalitis
(c) Multiple sclerosis
(d) Huntington’s disease
Answer: (d)
8. Which of the following is called the common neurotransmitter?
(a) Acetylcholine
(b) Dopamine
(c) Serotonin
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
9. The cavity of the diencephalon is known as _______.
(a) First ventricle
(b) Third ventricle
(c) Second ventricle
(d) Fourth ventricle
Answer: (b)
10. Which of the following is the cause for transmission of nerve impulse through nerve fibre in a single direction?
(a) Neurotransmitters released by dendrites.
(b) Neurotransmitters released by axon endings.
(c) Nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath
(d) None of the above.
Answer: (b)
Artificial Hybridization
1. This is the correct sequence for artificial experiment in bisexual flowers
(a) Self-pollination -> Bagging -> Emasculation -> Rebagging
(b) Cross pollination -> Bagging -> Emasculation -> Rebagging
(c) Emasculation -> Bagging -> Cross pollination -> Rebagging
(d) Bagging -> Emasculation -> Cross pollination -> Rebagging
Answer: (c)
2. Both geitonogamy and autogamy are prevented in
(a) Cucumber
(b) Papaya
(c) Mazia
(d) Castor
Answer: (b)
3. The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the
(a) the cytoplasm of antipodal cells
(b) one male gamete in cytoplasm of synergids and other in cytoplasm of central cell
(c) both in cytoplasm of central cell
(d) both in cytoplasm of synergids
Answer: (d)
4. Who first used artificial hybridization in fruit crops?
(a) Karpocho
(b) Knight
(c) Jones
(d) Mendel
Answer: (b)
5. This will lose its economic value if fruits are produced through parthenocarpy
(a) Banana
(b) Citrus
(c) Pomegarante
(d) Grape
Answer: (c)
6. After reaching the ovary, pollen tube does not display this of the following events
(a) may enter the ovule through chalaza
(b) enters one of the synergids through filiform apparatus
(c) enters the ovule through the micropyle
(d) chemotactic movement of pollen tube towards synergid
Answer: (d)
7. This statement is incorrect
(a) the seed dormancy is the internal or innate inhibition of generation of normal or viable seeds
(b) embryo in the dormant seeds show higher rate of general metabolic rate
(c) because fo dormancy seeds remain viable for long durations and can be stored
(d) as the seeds mature, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry
Answer: (b)
8. When dioecious plants are considered for artificial hybridization, this step would not be relevant
(a) collection of pollen
(b) bagging of female flower
(c) dusting of pollen on stigma
(d) emasculation
Answer: (d)
9. Aleurone layer participates in
(a) enzyme synthesis
(b) transfer of food to cotyledons
(c) is also known as scutellum
(d) protection of delicate embryo
Answer: (a)
10. The external conditions required for seed germination are
(a) light, moisture and appropriate temperature
(b) oxygen, carbon dioxide and appropriate temperature
(c) oxygen, light and appropriate temperature
(d) oxygen, moisture and suitable temperature
Answer: (d)
Stress Hormone
1. This hormone is produced under condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Estradiol
(d) Adrenaline
Answer: (d)
2. Fight or flight reactions causes the activation of
(a) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
(b) adrenal medulla leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
(c) pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels
(d) the kidney, causing suppression of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway
Answer: (b)
3. After trying for several years, a couple finally learnt that they are going to have a baby. They are experiencing this type of stress
(a) Strain
(b) Anxiety
(c) Distress
(d) Eustress
Answer: (d)
4. This part of the autonomic nervous system provides the body with energy for the fight-or-flight response
(a) Central nervous system
(b) Sympathetic nervous system
(c) Peripheral nervous system
(d) Parasympathetic nervous system
Answer: (b)
5. A real or perceived challenge or threat which causes the body to produce a response is a(n)
(a) injury
(b) phobia
(c) stressor
(d) frustration
Answer: (c)
6. The hormone released by the adrenal glands allows the body to make energy more readily available from the stored nutrients
(a) ACTH
(b) Cortisol
(c) Epinephrine
(d) Norepinephrine
Answer: (b)
7. When danger or stress is perceived/experienced, this response occurs in the body
(a) Exhaustion
(b) Adaption
(c) Fight-or-flight
(d) Resistance
Answer: (c)
8. This branch of science investigates the relationship between stress and the nervous and immune systems
(a) Neurolinguistics
(b) Sociology
(c) Adaptive immunology
(d) Psychoneuroimmunology
Answer: (d)
9. All of the following is true about the hormone epinephrine except that it
(a) is released by the pituitary gland
(b) is also known as adrenaline
(c) is secreted by the adrenal gland
(d) prepares the body for action
Answer: (a)
10. The primary hormone responsible for stress-related physiological responses, such as an increase in heart rate is
(a) insulin
(b) cortisol
(c) epinephrine
(d) thyroxin
Answer: (c)
Species Diversity
1. The following practice has led to the maximum damage to the diversity of Indian forests
(a) Block cutting
(b) Selective harvesting
(c) Jhum cultivation
(d) Taungya cultivation
Answer: (c)
2. Plant species on the verge of extinction as a result of over-exploitation is
(a) Gloriosa
(b) Centella
(c) Podophyllum
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
3. This endangered animal is the source of the world’s finest, lightest, warmest and the most expensive wool – the shahtoosh
(a) Cheetal
(b) Kashmiri goat
(c) Nilgai
(d) Chiru
Answer: (d)
4. This group of vertebrates comprises of the highest number of endangered species
(a) Fishes
(b) Birds
(c) Reptiles
(d) Mammals
Answer: (d)
5. Indri-indri lemur is found in
(a) India
(b) Sri lanka
(c) Madagaskar
(d) Mauritius
Answer: (c)
6. This is not under situ conservation
(a) Botanic Garden
(b) National park
(c) Statuary
(d) Biosphere reserve
Answer: (a)
7. One of the endangered species of the Indian medicinal plants is
(a) Garlic
(b) Ocimum
(c) Nependenthes
(d) Podophyllum
Answer: (d)
8. Siberian crane is a regular visitor of bird sanctuary
(a) Bharatpur (Rajasthan)
(b) Ranaganathittu (Karnataka)
(c) Lalbagh (Karnataka)
(d) Vedanthangal (T.N)
Answer: (a)
9. Sacred groves are useful in
(a) Preventing soil erosion
(b) generating environmental awareness
(c) conservation rare and threatened species
(d) year-round flow of water in rivers
Answer: (c)
10. Species very near to extinction if conservation measures are promptly not take up are
(a) Rare species
(b) threatened species
(c) endangered species
(d) vulenrable species
Answer: (c)
Kingdom Fungi
1. This fungi division includes ‘Club fungi’
(a) Zygomycota
(b) Deuteromycota
(c) Basidiomycota
(d) Ascomycota
Answer: (c)
2. This group is used to represent pathological fungi
(a) Penicillium
(b) Truffles, mushrooms and morels
(c) Smuts, rusts and moulds
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
3. The fungi which derive their food directly from dead organic matter are known as
(a) Predators
(b) Decomposers
(c) Mutualists
(d) Parasitic fungi
Answer: (b)
4. What is the name of the special hyphal tips through which parasitic fungi absorb nutrients directly from the cytoplasm of the living host?
(a) Haustoria
(b) Mildew
(c) Constricting ring
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
5. Which of these entities is an indicator of the SO2 pollution of air?
(a) Puffballs
(b) Mushrooms
(c) Mosses
(d) Lichens
Answer: (d)
6. The fungal disease – the black rust of wheat is caused by
(a) Melampsora lini
(b) Claviceps purpurea
(c) Puccinia graminis tritici
(d) Albugo candida
Answer: (c)
7. What does ‘Perfect stage’ of a fungus indicate?
(a) indicates that it can reproduce asexually
(b) indicates that it is perfectly healthy
(c) indicates that it is able to form perfect sexual spores
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
8. Death angel/death cap (amanita) and Jack O Lantern mushroom are all examples of
(a) Poisonous mushrooms
(b) Edible mushrooms
(c) None of the above
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
9. Covered smut of Sorghum is caused by
(a) Sphacelotheca sorghi
(b) Sphacelotheca cruenta
(c) Sphacelotheca reiliana
(d) Tolyposporium ehrenbergii
Answer: (a)
10. Oyster mushroom is an example of predator fungi that attacks
(a) Tapeworms
(b) Pinworms
(c) Platyhelminthes
(d) Roundworms
Answer: (d)
Biodiversity
1. The most important reason for biodiversity loss in today’s age is
(a) over-exploitation
(b) co-extinctions
(c) alien species invasions
(d) fragmentation and habitat loss
Answer: (d)
2. Biodiversity loss can lead to everything except this
(a) increased resistance to the environmental perturbance
(b) a decline in plant production
(c) increased variability in water use
(d) increased variability in pest and disease cycle
Answer: (a)
3. Which of these is not a reason accounting for greater biodiversity of tropics?
(a) more niche specialization
(b) availability of more solar energy
(c) more time for species diversification
(d) large seasonal variations in environmental factors
Answer: (d)
4. The main difference between the ‘Sixth extinction’ and the previous five extinctions is that, the sixth extinction
(a) mainly affects plants
(b) mainly occurs on islands
(c) occurs at a faster rate
(d) is exclusive of human activities
Answer: (c)
5. The hot spots of biodiversity are characterized by:
(a) low endemicity and low threat of extinction
(b) low endemicity and high threat of extinction
(c) high endemicity and low threat of extinction
(d) high endemicity and high threat of extinction
Answer: (d)
6. Presence of plants organised into well defined vertical layers based on their heights can be best observed in
(a) grassland
(b) tropical savannah
(c) tropical rain forest
(d) temperate forest
Answer: (c)
7. Which of these is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened plants and animals?
(a) Biodiversity hotspots
(b) Wildlife safari parks
(c) Amazon rainforest
(d) Himalayan region
Answer: (b)
8. The region of biosphere reserve that is protected legally, where no human activity takes place is known as
(a) transition zone
(b) buffer zone
(c) core zone
(d) restoration zone
Answer: (c)
9. Pick the correct match
(a) Stratification – Population
(b) Aerenchyma – Opuntia
(c) Age Pyramid – Biome
(d) Parthenium hysterophorus – a threat to biodiversity
Answer: (d)
10. The National aquatic animal of India is
(a) Sea horse
(b) River Dolphin
(c) Blue whale
(d) Gangetic shark
Answer: (b)
Ecosystem
1. In an ecosystem, which one of the following types of entities occupies more than one trophic level?
(a) Frog
(b) Phytoplankton
(c) Zooplankton
(d) Fish
Answer: (d)
2. The rate at which food energy is assimilated at the trophic level of consumers is known as
(a) Gross primary productivity
(b) Net primary productivity
(c) Secondary productivity
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
3. Limitations of ecological pyramids involve all these statements, except
(a) they assume a simple food chain and do not consider food webs
(b) in the ecological pyramids, saprotrophs are not given any place
(c) they do not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels
(d) they do not represent relationships between organisms at different trophic levels
Answer: (d)
4. This entity will be the first one to colonize a bare rock
(a) Herbs and shrubs
(b) Annual plants
(c) Lichens
(d) Perennial plants
Answer: (c)
5. During ecological succession
(a) types and numbers of animals remain constant
(b) establishment of a new biotic community is fast in its primary phase
(c) predictable and gradual changes in species composition take place in a given area
(d) changes lead to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and is
referred to as pioneer community
Answer: (c)
6. This ecosystem has the maximum biomass
(a) Grassland ecosystem
(b) Pond ecosystem
(c) Lake ecosystem
(d) Forest ecosystem
Answer: (d)
7. These are the primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem
(a) blue-green algae
(b) coral reefs
(c) chemosynthetic bacteria
(d) green algae
Answer: (c)
8. This is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem
(a) Absence of weeds
(b) Ecological succession
(c) least genetic diversity
(d) absence of soil entities
Answer: (c)
9. At the producer level, if 20J of energy is trapped, then how much energy will be available to a peacock as food in the subsequent chain?
Plant -> Mice -> Snake -> Peacock
(a) 0.2 J
(b) 0.02 J
(c) 0.002 J
(d) 0.0002 J
Answer: (b)
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