Seed Germination
1. A few normal seedlings of tomato were placed in a dark room. After a few days, they were found to have turned white-coloured like albinos. Which of these can be used to describe them?
(a) Defoliated
(b) Etiolated
(c) Embolised
(d) Mutated
Answer: (b)
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2. Gibberellins can facilitate seed germination due to their influence on
(a) synthesis of abscisic acid
(b) rate of cell division
(c) production of hydrolyzing enzymes
(d) absorption of water through the hard seed coat
Answer: (c)
3. An enzyme which can stimulate the germination of barley seeds is
(a) Invertase
(b) Lipase
(c) Protease
(d) α-amylase
Answer: (d)
4. During the germination of seeds, the seed coat ruptures due to
(a) massive imbibition of water
(b) differentiation of cotyledons
(c) a sudden increase in cell division
(d) massive glycolysis in cotyledons and endosperm
Answer: (a)
5. The proteinaceous part of maize endosperm is
(a) Peripheral layer
(b) scutellum
(c) Apophysis
(d) Aleurone layer
Answer: (d)
6. One of these gases is required for the germination of pea seeds
(a) nitrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) water vapours
(d) hydrogen
Answer: (b)
7. Seed dormancy allows the plants to
(a) develop healthy seeds
(b) reduce viability
(c) overcome unfavourable climatic conditions
(d) prevent deterioration of seeds
Answer: (c)
8. The protective covering over radical during the germination of seeds is
(a) Coleoptile
(b) Epithelium
(c) Suspensor
(d) Coleorhiza
Answer: (d)
9. Which of these compounds can induce seed dormancy?
(a) Potassium nitrate
(b) ABA
(c) Gibberellins
(d) Ethylene
Answer: (b)
10. An albuminous seed showing hypogeal germination is
(a) bean
(b) castor
(c) gram
(d) maize
Answer: (d)
Parthenocarpy
1. The process by which fruits are developed without fertilization is called _________.
(a) Apomixis
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) Parthenogenesis
(d) Self-pollination
Answer: (b)
2. In which of the plant species, parthenocarpy takes place?
(a) Mango
(b) Banana
(c) Peach
(d) Jackfruit
Answer: (b)
3. Which of these plants will lose their economic value if its fruits are as a result of induced parthenocarpy?
(a) Banana
(b) Orange
(c) Grape
(d) Pomegranate
Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following plant hormones stimulates the development of parthenocarpic fruit?
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellins
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
5. Which of the following statement is false about parthenocarpy?
(a) Fruits developed are seedless
(b) The Ovary is stimulated with pollination
(c) The process is used as it yields high quality and consistency
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
6. The fruit in tomato is classified into _____.
(a) Pepo
(b) Pome
(c) Drupe
(d) Berry
Answer: (d)
7. Which of the following statement is false about Fabaceae?
(a) It was earlier mentioned to as Papilionoideae
(b) It is widely distributed across the world
(c) It is common to find plants with fibrous root system here
(d) It is a subfamily of family Leguminosae
Answer: (c)
8. Which of the following statement is false about Hilum?
(a) Hilum lies underneath micropyle
(b) Ccar over the seed coat
(c) Growing seeds are attached to the fruit through the hilum
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
9. What is the fruit of wheat and rice called?
(a) Follicle
(b) Caryopsis
(c) Siliqua
(d) Achene
Answer: (b)
10. Which of the following is not an agricultural product?
(a) Rice
(b) Jute
(c) Alum
(d) Cotton
Answer: (c)
Amoebiasis
1. Amoebiasis causes
(a) Headache and cold
(b) Dysentry
(c) Fever
(d) Severe cold
Answer: (b)
2. Amoebiasis is caused by
(a) Toxoplasma gondii
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
3. Entamoeba histolytica can be cultured in
(a) Diamond’s medium
(b) CLED medium
(c) NNN medium
(d) MacConkey agar
Answer: (a)
4. Presence of ingested RBCs is a characteristic feature of
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) Dientamoeba fragilis
(c) Entamoeba coli
(d) Iodamoeba butcheli
Answer: (a)
5. The most common site for amoebiasis is:
(a) Cecum
(b) Sigmoid colon
(c) Transverse colon
(d) Hepatic flexure
Answer: (a)
6. Amoebiasis is transmitted by
(a) Direct contact with dirty hands
(b) Sexual contact
(c) Faecal contamination of drinking water and food
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
7. Differentiation between pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains can be done by
(a) Phagocytic activity
(b) Use of genetic markers
(c) Zymodeme analysis
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
8. In tissues, amoebiasis is treated with
(a) Tinidazole
(b) Nitazoxanide
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Any of these
Answer: (d)
9. The karyosome of Entamoeba histolytica is
(a) liver
(b) progressive
(c) central
(d) even
Answer: (c)
10. Entamoeba histolytica cysts have _________ nuclei
(a) 1-4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 6-8
Answer: (a)
11. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. amoebiasis.
(a) Causes dysentery
(b) Parasite of the small intestine
(c) Houseflies are mechanical carriers
(d) Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramp.
Answer: (b)
Thalassemia
1. This statement is true about Thalassemia
(a) There is a type of thalassemia depending on the number of mutations in genes
(b) It is caused by mutations in the DNA of cells which make up the haemoglobin
(c) Mild thalassemia may not need treatment
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
2. This is not a symptom of Thalassemia disease
(a) Abdominal cramps
(b) Weakness and slow growth
(c) Dark urine
(d) Facial bone deformities
Answer: (a)
3. This type of thalassemia disease is Cooley anaemia
(a) Alloimmunization
(b) Beta-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
4. Name the blood test which can detect if a person is a carrier of thalassemia
(a) Prenatal testing
(b) A complete blood count (CBC)
(c) A Reticulocyte Count
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
5. Treatment that can be given to thalassemia patients
(a) Stem cell or bone marrow transplant
(b) Blood transfusions
(c) Iron chelation
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
6. Possible complications of thalassemia
(a) Infection
(b) Iron overload
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
7. The complications that can occur in severe thalassemia is
(a) Enlarged spleen
(b) Bone deformities
(c) Problems with the heart
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
8. Factors leading to an increase in the risk of thalassemia disease
(a) Certain ancestry
(b) Family history of thalassemia
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and B
Answer: (d)
9. This about alpha-thalassemia is correct
(a) Number of gene mutations decide the severity of the condition
(b) Haemoglobin fails to produce enough alpha protein in alpha-thalassemia
(c) Alpha-thalassemia is common in South-east Asia, southern Asia, India etc
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
10. This about beta-thalassemia is true
(a) two genes are necessary to make beta-globin chains
(b) Mutation of genes decide the severity of the condition
(c) Beta thalassemia is a common condition in West Asia, North Africa and the Mediterranean islands
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)
Diversity in Living World
1. Compared to genus, which of the following is less general in characters?
(a) Family
(b) Species
(c) Division
(d) Class
Answer: (b)
2. For wheat, which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
(b) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Dicotyledonae
(c) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Sapindales, Class Monocotyledonae
(d) Genus Triticum, family Anacardiaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
Answer: (a)
3. Regulation of cells’ activity takes place through
(a) Flow of substances
(b) Flow of energy
(c) Flow of hormones
(d) Flow of smoke
Answer: (b)
4. Assertion(a): “Biological species” concept helps to ask how species are formed
Reason(r): Concept of biological species is centred around the question of how reproductive isolation comes about
(a) Both (a) and (r) are correct, but (r) is not the explanation for (a)
(b) Both (a) and (r) are correct, (r) is the correct explanation for (a)
(c) (a) and (r) both are incorrect
(d) (a) is true, (r) is incorrect
Answer: (d)
5. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is:
(a) Species -> genus -> order -> phylum
(b) Species -> order -> genus-> kingdom
(c) Genus -> species -> order -> kingdom
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
6. Taxonomic hierarchy refer to
(a) Classification of species based on the fossil record
(b) A list of botanists or zoologists who have worked on the taxonomy of a species or group
(c) a group of senior taxonomists who decide the nomenclature of animals and plants
(d) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for classification of animals and plants
Answer: (d)
7. Which one of these categories has real existence?
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Kingdom
(d) Phylum
Answer: (a)
8. A true species comprises of a population
(a) Interbreeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding over the same food
Answer: (c)
9. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days while N.tabacum flowers only during short days. Under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offsprings. What is the best reason for considering Nicotiana sylvestris and N.tabacum as separate species?
(a) They are reproductively distinct
(b) They fail to interbreed in nature
(c) They are physiologically different
(d) They are distinct morphologically
Answer: (b)
10. One of the first acts in taxonomy is
(a) Identification
(b) Description
(c) Naming
(d) Classification
Answer: (a)
11. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their
(a) family
(b) genus
(c) division
(d) order
Answer: (a)
12. A taxon is
(a) a type of living organisms
(b) a group of related species
(c) a group of related families
(d) a taxonomic group of any ranking
Answer: (d)
13. The living organisms can be unexceptionable distinguished from the nonliving things on the basis of their ability for
(a) responsiveness to touch
(b) reproduction
(c) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
(d) growth and movement
Answer: (a)
14. ICBN stands for
(a) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(b) Indian Congress of Biological Names
(c) International Congress of Biological Names
(d) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
Answer: (a)
15. Biosystematics aims at
(a) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
(b) the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
(c) identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics
(d) the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies
Answer: (d)
16. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on
(a) local names
(b) name of collector
(c) date of collection
(d) height of the plant
Answer: (d)
17. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?
(a) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet.
(b) The names are written in Latin and are italicised.
(c) Biological names can be written in any language.
(d) When written by hand the names are to be underlined.
Answer: (c)
Thyroid Gland
1. The main hormone secreted by the Thyroid gland
(a) T4
(b) T3
(c) (a) and (b) Both
(d) TSH
Answer: (C)
2. Iodine deficiency can cause
(a) Goitre
(b) Thyroid cancer
(c) Solitary thyroid nodules
(d) Thyroiditis
Answer: (a)
3. Grave’s disease or Basedow’s disease is due to
(a) Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex
(b) Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland
(c) Hyperactivity of thyroid gland
(d) Hypoactivity of islets of Langerhans
Answer: (c)
4. The four small glands in the thyroid gland are known as
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pineal gland
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) Endocrine and exocrine gland
Answer: (c)
5. Sometimes, the thyroid symptoms are mistaken for which condition?
(a) Menopause
(b) Posttraumatic stress
(c) Pregnancy
(d) Crohn’s disease
Answer: (a)
6. Medications for hypothyroidism include treatment that:
(a) Replaces insulin
(b) Replaces ADH
(c) Replaces TH
(d) Replaces surfactant
Answer: (c)
7. Which of these diseases is not related to thyroid glands?
(a) Cretinism
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Goitre
(d) Acromegaly
Answer: (d)
8. In chronically deficient patients, this abnormality is directly related to the enlargement of the thyroid gland
(a) Impaired conversion of T3 and T4
(b) Reduced activity of thyroperoxidase
(c) Elevated levels of TSH
(d) An antibody that binds to the TSH receptor in the thyroid gland
Answer: (c)
9. ____________ encloses thyroid, responsible for its movement during swallowing
(a) Prevertebral fascia
(b) Pretracheal fascia
(c) Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
(d) Superficial fascia
Answer: (b)
10. This condition of chronic inflammation of the thyroid leading to under-activity is
(a) Thyroiditis
(b) Goitre
(c) Hypothyroidism
(d) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: (a)
Coronary Artery
1. Coronary artery disease (CAD) can be determined by this test
(a) Cardiac catherization
(b) Electrocardiogram
(c) Treadmill stress test
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
2. The modifiable risk factor associated with coronary artery disease is
(a) Age
(b) Obesity
(c) Heredity
(d) Gender
Answer: (b)
3. This is one of the symptoms of Coronary artery disease
(a) Sleep problems
(b) Headache
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Pain or discomfort in the chest, lower jaw or arms
Answer: (d)
4. If a stent is not used in a few cases who have coronary angioplasty done, the artery tends to narrow down or get blocked again in 6 months. This is more likely to happen if:
(a) one smokes
(b) one has unstable angina before the procedure
(c) one has diabetes
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
5. Coronary angioplasty, part of CAD’s treatment involves:
(a) A new part of artery replaces the blocked section
(b) to expand artery, medication is used
(c) inflation of a tiny balloon inside an artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
6. Doctors place a stent inside the artery during angioplasty. A stent is a
(a) A new fragment of the artery
(b) A wire mesh tube
(c) A cotton tube
(d) A slow-release medicine capsule
Answer: (b)
7. The __________ branches into Circumflex artery and left anterior descendary artery
(a) Left main coronary artery
(b) right marginal artery
(c) Posterior descendary artery
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
8. One of these is not a symptom of acute coronary syndrome
(a) ST Segment elevation myocardial infarction
(b) Non ST segment elevation myocardial infarction
(c) unstable angina
(d) No episodes of dyspnea
Answer: (d)
9. Ischemia is
(a) restriction of blood supply to tissues
(b) Overflow of blood to tissues
(c) Inadequate deoxygenated blood carrying veins
(d) the medical term for shortness of breath
Answer: (a)
10. This is the role of the coronary artery
(a) to carry blood away from the heart muscles
(b) to supply blood to heart muscles
(c) to supply blood to all parts of the body
(d) none of these
Answer: (b)
Muscular Dystrophy
1. Which of this bacteria is resistant to penicillin as it lacks a cell wall?
(a) Spirochetes
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Mycoplasmas
(d) Bdellovibrios
Answer: (c)
2. What is a cluster of polar flagella called?
(a) Petritrichous
(b) Monotrichous
(c) Amphitrichous
(d) Lophotrichous
Answer: (d)
3. Which of these is a cocci occurring in single or pairs?
(a) Diplococci
(b) Streptococci
(c) Tetracocci
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
4. Flagella in bacteria enable them to
(a) reproduce
(b) locomote
(c) Thrive in nutrient agar
(d) Adhere to tissue surfaces
Answer: (b)
5. This about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is true
(a) cell wall comprises of many layers
(b) the cell wall is thicker than the associated gram-negative bacteria
(c) Cell wall comprises of teichoic acids
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
6. What is Chemotaxis?
(a) Swimming towards a bacteria
(b) Swimming away of a bacteria
(c) In the presence of a chemical compound, swimming towards or away of a bacteria
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
7. Which of these is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
(a) Braun lipoprotein
(b) O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
(c) Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
(d) Electron transport system components
Answer: (b)
8. The covalent bond which links the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria containing two modified sugars – N – acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) is
(a) glycosidic bond
(b) 1,4-glycosidic bond
(c) 1,6-glycosidic bond
(d) glycosidic bond
Answer: (b)
9. Which one of these has a Chinese letter arrangement?
(a) Clostridium tetani
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: (d)
10. This is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria
(a) Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
(b) Lysosomes of eukaryotes
(c) Mitochondria of eukaryotes
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Morphology of a Bacteria
1. Which of this bacteria is resistant to penicillin as it lacks a cell wall?
(a) Spirochetes
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Mycoplasmas
(d) Bdellovibrios
Answer: (c)
2. What is a cluster of polar flagella called?
(a) Petritrichous
(b) Monotrichous
(c) Amphitrichous
(d) Lophotrichous
Answer: (d)
3. Which of these is a cocci occurring in single or pairs?
(a) Diplococci
(b) Streptococci
(c) Tetracocci
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
4. Flagella in bacteria enable them to
(a) reproduce
(b) locomote
(c) Thrive in nutrient agar
(d) Adhere to tissue surfaces
Answer: (b)
5. This about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is true
(a) cell wall comprises of many layers
(b) the cell wall is thicker than the associated gram-negative bacteria
(c) Cell wall comprises of teichoic acids
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
6. What is Chemotaxis?
(a) Swimming towards a bacteria
(b) Swimming away of a bacteria
(c) In the presence of a chemical compound, swimming towards or away of a bacteria
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
7. Which of these is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
(a) Braun lipoprotein
(b) O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
(c) Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
(d) Electron transport system components
Answer: (b)
8. The covalent bond which links the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria containing two modified sugars – N – acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) is
(a) glycosidic bond
(b) 1,4-glycosidic bond
(c) 1,6-glycosidic bond
(d) glycosidic bond
Answer: (b)
9. Which one of these has a Chinese letter arrangement?
(a) Clostridium tetani
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: (d)
10. This is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria
(a) Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
(b) Lysosomes of eukaryotes
(c) Mitochondria of eukaryotes
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
Hydroponic System
1. Which of these is the fibre obtained from the coconut’s husk
(a) Perlite
(b) Vermiculture
(c) Coir
(d) Rockwool
Answer: (c)
2. The form of hydroponics that does not require a growing medium at all is
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Static solution culture
(c) Medium culture
(d) Aeroponics
Answer: (d)
3. Plants with larger roots can be cultivated with which of the following types of hydroponics
(a) Ebb and flow system
(b) Drip system
(c) Nutrient Film technique
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
4. Hydroponics is a method of cultivation of plants without the use of
(a) water
(b) air
(c) soil
(d) sunlight
Answer: (c)
5. Which of the following is not true about hydroponics?
(a) Requires high investment
(b) Technical knowledge required
(c) Can be misused to cultivate banned crops
(d) Plants through hydroponics cannot be cultivated everywhere
Answer: (d)
6. Salts and water in hydroponic plants are absorbed by
(a) Leaves
(b) Stem
(c) Roots
(d) Outer Layer of plants
Answer: (d)
7. The scientist who used nutrient culture solution in hydroponic cultures was
(a) Knop
(b) Sachs
(c) Wallace
(d) Webster
Answer: (a)
8. Deficiency of mineral nutrition does not cause which of these
(a) Chlorosis
(b) Etiolation
(c) Necrosis
(d) Shortening internode
Answer: (b)
9. Roots of a plant in hydroponics are submerged in a solution of dissolved _________
(a) fertilizers
(b) oxygen
(c) mineral salts
(d) chemicals
Answer: (a)
10. Which of these plants may not be suitable for cultivation through hydroponics
(a) Tomatoes
(b) Carrot
(c) Cucumber
(d) Strawberries
Answer: (b)
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