Down Syndrome
1. One of this trait is not seen in a person with Down syndrome
(a) High muscle tone
(b) Small stature
(c) Upward slant eye
(d) Short neck
Answer: (a)
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2. The number of chromosomes a child with Down syndrome has is
(a) 45
(b) 46
(c) 47
(d) 48
Answer: (c)
3. Down syndrome is caused due to
(a) bacterial infection
(b) a chromosomal abnormality
(c) Viral infection
(d) lack of oxygen supply to the brain during birth
Answer: (b)
4. Which of these traits is not linked with Down syndrome?
(a) Oily skin
(b) Hypotonicity
(c) Simian Crease
(d) Brachycephaly
Answer: (a)
5. This assessment finding would enable a nurse to suspect the presence of Down syndrome in a newborn
(a) Single palmar crease and hypotonia
(b) Short palpebral tissues and flat maxillary area
(c) Prominent scalp veins and a high-pitched cry
(d) Persistent postnatal growth lag and Microcephaly
Answer: (a)
6. Down syndrome is
(a) Sex-linked
(b) Chromosomal
(c) dominant
(d) recessive
Answer: (b)
7. A disease which may result from Down syndrome
(a) Cancer
(b) Cellulitis
(c) Celiac disease
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
8. Generally, a person with Down syndrome has an IQ of
(a) 20-30
(b) 40-50
(c) 60-70
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
9. The chances of an offspring to have Down syndrome __________ with the mother’s age
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) is not influenced
(d) there is no correlation
Answer: (b)
10. There are several variations of Down syndrome with Trisomy 21 accounting for close to 95% of all cases recorded. There is another form of the syndrome that occurs when a segment of the 21st chromosome detaches to attach itself to another chromosome. Its name is
(a) Displacement
(b) Transportation
(c) Translocation
(d) Relocation
Answer: (c)
Cell Structure And Function
1. This cell is the longest in the human body
(a) Muscle cells
(b) Nerve cells
(c) Bone cells
(d) Gland cells
Answer: (b)
2. This tissue includes the blood tissue
(a) Muscle tissue
(b) Connective tissue
(c) Epithelial tissue
(d) Nervous tissue
Answer: (b)
3. Which of this is/are examples of an organ containing a smooth muscle
(a) Iris of eye
(b) Bronchi only
(c) Uterus only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
4. This structure of the plant cell is non-living
(a) Nucleus
(b) cell wall
(c) cytoplasm
(d) Mitochondrion
Answer: (b)
5. This cell organelle does not contain DNA
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Chloroplast
Answer: (c)
6. The main difference between human cheek cells and onion peel cells is
(a) Presence of cell wall in onion peel cells
(b) Presence of mitochondria in onion peel cells
(c) Absence of endoplasmic reticulum in cheek cells
(d) Absence of the plasma membrane in cheek cells
Answer: (a)
7. This jellylike substance inside the plasma membrane in which all cell organelles are floating is
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Tonoplasm
(c) Karyoplasm
(d) Cell sap
Answer: (a)
8. The organelle serving as a primary packaging area for molecules that will be distributed throughout the cell is
(a) Vacuole
(b) Plastids
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: (d)
9. Animal cells are interconnected by
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Cell wall
(c) Desmosomes
(d) Plasmodesmata
Answer: (c)
10. The Cell theory is not applicable to
(a) Fungi
(b) Algae
(c) Virus
(d) Microbes
Answer: (c)
Microbes in Human Welfare
1. In Swiss cheese, big holes are made by a
(a) bacterium producing methane gas
(b) machine
(c) fungus releasing a lot of gases while its metabolic activities
(d) bacterium producing large quantities of carbon dioxide
Answer: (d)
2. During which stage of the purification of the sewage water are microbes used?
(a) Primary treatment
(b) Secondary treatment
(c) Tertiary treatment
(d) Both (1) and (2)
Answer: (b)
3. What does a high value of BOD(Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicate?
(a) That water is pure
(b) that water is less polluted
(c) that water is highly polluted
(d) that consumption of organic matter by microbes is higher in the water
Answer: (c)
4. This entry in the table is wrongly matched
Answer: (c)
5. This is a good producer of citric acid
(a) Aspergillus
(b) Clostridium
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Pseudomonas
Answer: (a)
6. This is not an example of performing biological control of diseases/pests using microbes
(a) Trichoderma sp. against some plant pathogens
(b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against insects and other arthropods
(c) Ladybird beetle against aphids
(d) Bt-cotton to increase yield
Answer: (d)
7. This is chiefly produced by the activity of an anaerobic bacteria on sewage
(a) Laughing gas
(b) Propane
(c) Mustard gas
(d) Marsh gas
Answer: (d)
8. For the production of ethanol, the most common substrate used in distilleries is
(a) Soya meal
(b) Molasses
(c) Ground gram
(d) cornmeal
Answer: (b)
9. This is not a biofertilizer
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) Nostoc
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Mycorrhiza
Answer: (a)
10. Carbon dioxide is not released in which of the following processes?
(a) Lactate fermentation
(b) Alcoholic fermentation
(c) Aerobic respiration in animals
(d) Aerobic respiration in plants
Answer: (a)
Plant Physiology
1. In the rainy season, doors get swelled up due to
(a) Transpiration
(b) Imbibition
(c) Diffusion
(d) Respiration
Answer: (b)
2. This statement regarding enzyme inhibition is correct
(a) non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
(b) non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding a large amount
of substrate
(c) competitive inhibition is observed when substrate and inhibitor compete for the active site
on enzyme
(d) competitive inhibition is observed when substrate competes with an enzyme to bind
to an inhibitor protein
Answer: (c)
3. In C3 and C4 plants, primary carboxylation takes place with the help of
(a) PEP carboxylse and pyruvate carboxylase
(b) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
(c) PEP carboxylase and RuBP carboxylase
(d) RuBP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
Answer: (b)
4. Peroxisomes are involved in which type of reactions pertaining to plant photosynthesis?
(a) Calvin Cycle
(b) Glycolytic cycle
(c) Glyoxylate cycle
(d) Bacterial photosynthesis
Answer: (c)
5. The fundamental feature of Kranz Anatomy of C4 plants is
(a) Presence of agranal chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells and granal chloroplasts in mesophyll cells
(b) Presence of granal chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells and agranal chloroplasts in mesophyll cells
(c) Presence of chloroplasts in epidermal and mesophyll cells
(d) Presence of agranal chloroplasts in both mesophyll and bundle sheath cells
Answer: (a)
6. The statement which is incorrect with respect to enzyme action is
(a) Addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase
by malonate
(b) the substrate binds with the enzyme as its active site
(c) a non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds
the substrate
(d) malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Answer: (a)
7. A phosphoglyceride is always composed of
(a) only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
the group is also attached
(b) only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
(c) an unsaturated or saturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate molecule to which a
glycerol molecule is also attached
(d) an unsaturated or saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
Answer: (d)
8. Macromolecule chitin is
(a) phosphorous containing polysaccharide
(b) nitrogen containing polysaccharide
(c) sulphur containing polysaccharide
(d) simple polysaccharide
Answer: (b)
9. This is a wrongly matched pair
(a) Alcohol – Nitrogenase
(b) Detergents – Lipase
(c) Textile – Amylase
(d) Fruit juice – Pectinase
Answer: (a)
10. The most abundant protein in the animal world is
(a) Trypsin
(b) Collagen
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Insulin
Answer: (b)
Spermatogenesis
1. This amongst the following statements is incorrect. Human spermatozoa usually
(a) moves with the help of their tails
(b) contains enzyme in their head which aids in penetration of the ovum
(c) are released in large numbers after a few days of abstinence
(d) at a concentration of 1 million/ml of ejaculate will fertilize the ovum
Answer: (d)
2. Polar bodies are formed during
(a) Oogenesis
(b) Spermatogenesis
(c) Gametogenesis
(d) Spermateleosis
Answer: (a)
3. The correct sequence of cell stage in spermatogenesis is
(a) Spermatocytes – Spermatids – Spermatogonia – Spermatozoa
(b) Spermatogonia – Spermatids – Spermatocytes – Spermatozoa
(c) Spermatocytes – Spermatogonia – Spermatids – Spermatozoa
(d) Spermatogonia – Spermatocytes – Spermatids – Spermatozoa
Answer: (d)
4. In spermatogenesis, the phases of maturation involve
(a) formation of spermatids from primary spermatocytes through meiosis
(b) Growth of spermatogonia into primary spermatocytes
(c) formation of spermatogonia from gonocytes through mitosis
(d) formation of oogonia from spermatocytes through meiosis
Answer: (a)
5. This happens during spermatogenesis
(a) Meiosis
(b) Mitosis
(c) Meiosis and mitosis
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
6. The actual genetic section of sperm is its
(a) Acrosome
(b) Tail
(c) Middle piece
(d) Head
Answer: (d)
7. The process of spermatogenesis is induced by
(a) TSH
(b) FSH
(c) MSH
(d) ACTH
Answer: (b)
8. The number of spermatozoa, a single primary spermatocyte finally produced in spermatogenesis is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer: (b)
9. The acrosome of sperm is formed from
(a) Mitochondria of spermatid
(b) Golgi complex of spermatid
(c) Nucleus of spermatid
(d) Centrosome of spermatid
Answer: (b)
10. Which of the following cells is immortal?
(a) Glomerular cells
(b) Somatic cells
(c) Cells of pituitary
(d) Germ cells
Answer: (d)
Types of Bonding and Forces in Solid
1. The Atoms of solid Ar are held together by
(a) Van der Waals forces
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Ionic bonds
(d) Hydrophobic forces
2. Which of the following has the weakest bond?
(a) Ice
(b) Diamond
(c) KCl
(d) Neon
3. Which of the following is the weakest bond?
(a) Ionic bonds
(b) Metallic bonds
(c) Covalent bonds
(d) Van der Waals forces
4. Which of the following has both covalent and ionic bonds?
(a) NaOH
(b) KCl
(c) CH4
(d) SO2
5. In a crystal, covalent molecules are held together by
(a) Dipole-dipole attraction
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Van der Waals attraction
(d) Electrostatic attraction
6. Which of the compounds shows the highest lattice energy?
(a) CsF
(b) KF
(c) RbF
(d) NaF
7. Metallic bonds do not have
(a) Highly directed bonds
(b) Mobile valence electrons
(c) Delocalised electrons
(d) Overlapping valence orbitals
8. Formation of a chemical bond results in
(a) Increase in energy
(b) Decrease in energy
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
9. Small discrete molecules are present in which of the substances?
(a) Copper
(b) CO
(c) Dry ice
(d) Graphite
10. Particles in an ionic crystals are held together by
(a) Nuclear forces
(b) Electrons
(c) Covalent bonds
(d) Electrostatic forces
Answer
Types of Joints
1. Humans have ________ joint between sternum and ribs
(a) gliding
(b) angular
(c) cartilaginous
(d) fibrous
Answer: (c)
2. The joint in our elbow is an example of
(a) hinge joint
(b) ball and socket joint
(c) pivot joint
(d) gliding joint
Answer: (a)
3. Find the correctly matched pair
(a) Fibrous joint — between phalanges
(b) Cartilaginous joint — skull bones
(c) Gliding joint — between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
(d) Hinge joint — between vertebrae
Answer: (c)
4. Which of the following joints does not allow any movement?
(a) Synovial joint
(b) Fibrous joint
(c) Ball and Socket joint
(d) Cartilaginous joint
Answer: (b)
5. Glenoid cavity articulates
(a) Clavicle with acromion
(b) Clavicle with scapula
(c) Scapula with acromion
(d) Humerus with scapula
Answer: (d)
6. The joint between atlas and axis is
(a) Saddle joint
(b) Angular joint
(c) Pivot joint
(d) Cartilaginous joint
Answer: (c)
7. Find the correct pair
(a) Gliding joint – between carpals
(b) Cartilaginous joint – between frontal and parietal
(c) Hinge joint – between humerus and pectoral girdle
(d) Pivot joint – between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
Answer: (a)
8. The type of joint between the skull bones is
(a) Fibrous
(b) Cartilaginous
(c) Synovial
(d) Hinge
Answer: (a)
9. Ribs and sternum are connected by
(a) Areolar tissue
(b) Hyaline cartilage
(c) White fibrous cartilage
(d) Bony matter
Answer: (b)
10. The joint between 1st and 2nd cervical vertebrae
(a) Gliding joint
(b) Saddle joint
(c) Pivot joint
(d) Hinge joint
Answer: (c)
DNA Replication
1. During replication, Okazaki fragments elongate
(a) leading strand towards the replication fork
(b) lagging strand towards the replication fork
(c) leading strand away from the replication fork
(d) lagging strand away from the replication fork
Answer: (d)
2. Which of the following enzymes separates the two strands of DNA during replication?
(a) Gyrase
(b) Topoisomerase
(c) Helicase
(d) DNA polymerase
Answer: (c)
3. DNA replication is
(a) conservative
(b) conservative and discontinuous
(c) semi-conservative and discontinuous
(d) semi-conservative and semi-discontinuous
Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following is used in DNA replication studies?
(a) Neurospora crassa
(b) Drosophila melanogaster
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Pneumococcus
Answer: (c)
5. Which of the following helps in opening of DNA double helix in front of replication fork?
(a) topoisomerase
(b) DNA polymerase-I
(c) DNA gyrase
(d) DNA ligase
Answer: (c)
6. Termination of replication is triggered by
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Helicase
(c) SSB
(d) Tus protein
Answer: (d)
7. DNA polymerase synthesizes
(a) DNA in 5’-3’ direction
(b) DNA in 3’-5’ direction
(c) mRNA in 3’-5’ direction
(d) mRNA in 5’-3’ direction
Answer: (a)
8. Association of histones H1 with nucleosome shows
(a) the occurrence of transcription
(b) the occurrence of replication
(c) exposed DNA double helix
(d) the condensation of DNA into chromatin fibre
Answer: (d)
9. The 3’ – 5’ phosphodiester linkage joins
(a) two DNA strands
(b) two nucleotides
(c) a nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
(d) two nucleosides
Answer: (b)
10. The fragments of DNA are joined together by which of the following enzymes?
(a) Endonuclease
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) Primase
(d) Ligase
Answer: (d)
Algae
1. Which one of the following is a colonial alga?
(a) Ulothrix
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Volvox
(d) Chlorella
Answer: (c)
2. Which of the following shows zygotic meiosis?
(a) Chlamydomonas
(b) Marchantia
(c) Funaria
(d) Fucus
Answer: (a)
3. Find the incorrect statement
(a) Agar-agar is produced from Gracilaria
(b) Chlorella is used in space food
(c) Mannitol is a food reserve of Rhodophyceae
(d) Algin is produced by algae
Answer: (c)
4. Which of the following has non-flagellated isogamous gametes?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Chlamydomonas
(c) Volvox
(d) Fucus
Answer: (a)
5. Mannitol is a reserved food found in
(a) Gracillaria
(b) Porphyra
(c) Chara
(d) Fucus
Answer: (d)
6. Which of the following contains chlorophyll a, d, phycoerythrin and phycocyanin?
(a) Chlorophyta
(b) Phaeophyta
(c) Rhodophyta
(d) Bacillariophyta
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following is rich in protein?
(a) Ulothrix
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Nostoc
(d) Chlorella
Answer: (d)
8. Ulothrix produces
(a) isogametes
(b) heterogametes
(c) anisogametes
(d) basidiospores
Answer: (a)
9. What is the mode of sexual reproduction in Chlorophyceae?
(a) oogamous
(b) anisogamous
(c) isogamous
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
10. What is the shape of chloroplast in Chlamydomonas?
(a) cup-shaped
(b) spiral
(c) stellate
(d) collar-shaped
Answer: (a)
Harmful Microorganisms
1. Which of the following pairs of diseases is caused by bacteria?
(a) Herpes and influenza
(b) Tetanus and mumps
(c) Typhoid and smallpox
(d) Cholera and tetanus
Answer: (d)
2. This disease is caused by a protozoan
(a) Influenza
(b) Syphilis
(c) Blastomycosis
(d) Babesiosis
Answer: (d)
3. The trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica feed on
(a) only mucosa and submucosa of the colon
(b) erythrocytes, mucosa and submucosa of the colon
(c) only blood
(d) intestinal food
Answer: (b)
4. Human immunodeficiency virus first destroys these cells
(a) leucocytes
(b) B-lymphocytes
(c) thrombocytes
(d) helper T-lymphocytes
Answer: (d)
5. The motile zygote of Plasmodium is found in
(a) human liver
(b) human RBCs
(c) salivary glands of female Anopheles
(d) the gut of female Anopheles
Answer: (d)
6. Infectious protein is a characteristic of
(a) satellite viruses
(b) viroids
(c) prions
(d) gemini viruses
Answer: (c)
7. Which of the following gets killed by lysozyme present in saliva and tears?
(a) some of the fungi
(b) virus-infected cells
(c) all viruses
(d) some of the bacteria
Answer: (d)
8. Clostridium botulinum is a
(a) facultative aerobe
(b) obligate anaerobe
(c) facultative anaerobe
(d) obligate aerobe
Answer: (b)
9. Our body synthesizes interferons in response to
(a) fungi
(b) bacteria
(c) virus
(d) mycoplasma
Answer: (c)
10. Salmonella causes
(a) tetanus
(b) T.B.
(c) polio
(d) typhoid
Answer: (d)
Blood
1. Which of the following blood cells play an important role in blood clotting?
(a) Thrombocytes
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Leucocytes
(d) Erythrocytes
Answer: (a)
2. Serum differs from blood as it lacks
(a) antibodies
(b) clotting factors
(c) albumins
(d) globulins
Answer: (b)
3. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Serum contains blood and fibrinogen
(b) Plasma is blood without lymphocytes
(c) Blood comprises plasma, RBC, WBC and platelets
(d) Lymph is plasma with RBC and WBC
Answer: (c)
4. This plasma protein is responsible for blood coagulation
(a) Fibrinogen
(b) Globulin
(c) Serum amylase
(d) Albumin
Answer: (a)
5. DNA is not present in
(a) an enucleated ovum
(b) hair root
(c) a mature spermatozoa
(d) mature RBCs
Answer: (d)
6. Globulins of the blood plasma are responsible for
(a) defence mechanisms
(b) blood clotting
(c) oxygen transport
(d) osmotic balance
Answer: (a)
7. Lymph differs from blood in having
(a) no plasma
(b) more RBCs and less WBCs
(c) more WBCs and no RBCs
(d) plasma without proteins
Answer: (c)
8. WBCs which release heparin and histamine
(a) Basophils
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Monocytes
(d) Eosinophils
Answer: (a)
9. WBCs which are the most active phagocytic cells
(a) lymphocytes and macrophages
(b) neutrophils and eosinophils
(c) neutrophils and monocytes
(d) eosinophils and lymphocytes
Answer: (c)
10. Find the correct statement for WBCs
(a) can squeeze through blood capillaries
(b) produced only in the thymus
(c) deficiency leads to cancer
(d) do not contain a nucleus
Answer: (a)
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