Biofertilizers
1. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Alnus – Frankia
(b) Alfalfa – Rhizobium
(c) Nitrogen fixer – Anabaena
(d) Mycorrhiza – Rhodospirrilum
Answer: (d)
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2. Which of the following nitrogen fixers is found in rice fields associated with Azolla?
(a) Tolypothrix
(b) Frankia
(c) Anabaena
(d) Spirulina
Answer: (c)
3. Which of the following is not a biofertilizer?
(a) Mycorrhiza
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Agrobacterium
(d) Nostoc
Answer: (c)
4. Which of the following is used as a biofertilizer for soybean crop?
(a) Nostoc
(b) Azospirillum
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Azotobacter
Answer: (c)
5. Which of the following is commonly used as a nitrogen fixer in paddy fields?
(a) Frankia
(b) Oscillatoria
(c) Azospirrilum
(d) Rhizobium
Answer: (c)
6. This is not used in organic farming
(a) snail
(b) earthworm
(c) Oscillatoria
(d) Glomus
Answer: (a)
7. Which of the following is a nitrogen fixer in the root nodules of Alnus?
(a) Clostridium
(b) Bradyrhizobium
(c) Azorhizobium
(d) Frankia
Answer: (d)
8. Which of the following is a pair of biofertilizers?
(a) Salmonella and E.coli
(b) Rhizobium and grasses
(c) Nostoc and legume
(d) Azolla and BGA
Answer: (d)
9. Which of the following fern is a biofertilizer?
(a) Salvinia
(b) Azolla
(c) Pteridium
(d) Marsilea
Answer: (b)
10. Which of the following is an endomycorrhiza?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Agaricus
(c) Glomus
(d) Nostoc
Answer: (c)
11. Pick the correct statement
(a) legumes do not fix nitrogen
(b) legumes fix nitrogen independent of bacteria
(c) legumes fix nitrogen through bacteria in their roots
(d) legumes fix nitrogen through bacteria in their leaves
Answer: (c)
12. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through the usage of
(a) resistant varieties
(b) manures
(c) biofertilizers
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
13. A biofertilizer involving a pteridophyte host is
(a) Azotobacter
(b) Clostridium
(c) Anabaena
(d) Rhizobium
Answer: (c)
14. Which of the following plants form a symbiotic relationship with two nitrogen-fixing bacteria Rhizobium and Aero rhizobium in root and stem nodules respectively?
(a) Sesbania rostrata
(b) Crotalaria juncea
(c) Sesbania aculeata
(d) Cyamopsis tetragonoloba
Answer: (a)
15. This plant is used in sandy soils and as green manure in crop fields
(a) Lantana camara and Saccharum munja
(b) Phyllanthus niruri and Calotropis procera
(c) Azolla pinnata and Dichanthium annulatum
(d) Alhagi camelorum and Crotalaria juncea
Answer: (d)
Vector Borne Diseases
1. The motile zygote of Plasmodium is found in
(a) human liver
(b) human RBCs
(c) salivary glands of female Anopheles
(d) the gut of female Anopheles
Answer: (d)
2. Ascaris infection is transmitted by
(a) mosquito bite
(b) Tse-tse fly
(c) consuming uncooked pork
(d) drinking contaminated water with eggs of Ascaris
Answer: (d)
3. Plague is caused by
(a) Leishmania donovani
(b) Yersinia pestis
(c) Salmonella typhimuium
(d) Trichinella spiralis
Answer: (b)
4. Which of the following is a correct matching pair of disease and pathogen?
(a) Filariasis – Wuchereria
(b) Kala-azar – Glossina
(c) Sleeping sickness – Leishmania
(d) Malaria – Anopheles
Answer: (a)
5. Which of the following is not a vector-borne disease?
(a) Yellow fever
(b) Dengue fever
(c) Viral fever
(d) Malaria
Answer: (c)
6. Which of the following is an incorrectly matched pair of a disease and its associated vector?
(a) Leishmaniasis – Anopheles culifacies
(b) Dengue fever – Aedes aegypti
(c) Filariasis – Culex pipiens
(d) Sleeping sickness – Glossina palpalis
Answer: (a)
7. Recurring chills and fever in malaria is due to
(a) destruction of micro and macrogametocytes by the WBCs
(b) rupturing of RBCs by rapid multiplication and release of haemozoin
(c) toxins released from trophozoites
(d) sporozoites released from RBCs and are rapidly being killed in the spleen
Answer: (b)
8. Sporozoites of the malarial parasites are found in
(a) the saliva of female Anopheles mosquito, which is freshly moulted
(b) the saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(c) RBCs of an infected human
(d) the spleen of an infected human
Answer: (b)
9. Kala-azar is transmitted by
(a) Dragon fly
(b) Housefly
(c) Tse-tse fly
(d) Sand fly
Answer: (d)
10. Yellow fever is transmitted by
(a) Anopheles
(b) Aedes
(c) Housefly
(d) Tse-tse fly
Answer: (b)
Ageing And Death
1. The study of different aspects of ageing is known as
(a) Gerontology
(b) Gynaecology
(c) Odontology
(d) Chronology
Answer: (a)
2. This theory states that the accumulation of particular waste products leads to ageing
(a) immunity theory
(b) metabolic theory
(c) waste product theory
(d) all of the above
Answer: (c)
3. The human body loses cells regularly in this area
(a) red blood cells
(b) lining layer of the gut
(c) surface of skin
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
4. This characterizes ageing
(a) increase in the consumption of oxygen
(b) increased anabolism
(c) increased metabolic activity
(d) a decrease in the metabolic activity
Answer: (d)
5. This is known as the “Clock of ageing”
(a) Pituitary
(b) Thymus
(c) Thyroid
(d) Adrenal
Answer: (b)
6. In many mammals, even humans, ageing can be due to
(a) malnutrition and stress
(b) interaction between hereditary factors and the environment
(c) adverse alterations in the environment
(d) all of these
Answer: (d)
7. The activity of collagen protein is affected badly in old age. This is due to
(a) diffusion that becomes very high
(b) diffusion that becomes very slow
(c) permeability which becomes very high
(d) permeability which becomes very low
Answer: (a)
8. Brain and Thymus are the main factors in the ageing process
(a) Mutation theory
(b) Pacemaker theory
(c) Gene theory
(d) Stress theory
Answer: (b)
9. Which of the following theory states that accumulation of errors in cellular molecule affects the ageing process?
(a) Gene theory
(b) Environmental theory
(c) Error catastrophe theory
(d) Mutation theory
Answer: (c)
10. Degenerative changes take place during
(a) ageing only
(b) metamorphosis only
(c) both in ageing and metamorphosis
(d) parthenogenesis
Answer: (c)
Syphilis
1. This causes Syphilis
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Treponema pallidum
Answer: (d)
2. Syphilis is often called
(a) The invisible dictator
(b) The terrorizing emperor
(c) The great imitator
(d) The great terminator
Answer: (c)
3. In this state of the antibody test, it is found to be positive in 1-3 weeks post the appearance of a chancre
(a) tertiary syphilis stage
(b) secondary syphilis stage
(c) primary syphilis stage
(d) all of these
Answer: (c)
4. All of these are a differential diagnosis of the primary genital lesion of syphilis, except for
(a) Donovanosis
(b) Traumatic injury
(c) Chancroid
(d) Herpes zoster infection
Answer: (d)
5. Experimental entities that are utilized for the study of syphilis are
(a) Chimpanzees
(b) Rabbits
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer: (c)
6. Today, the main test that is used to diagnose syphilis is
(a) Wassup
(b) Waterboy
(c) Waterman
(d) Wassermann
Answer: (d)
7. This stage is found to be the most infective stages of all
(a) secondary syphilis stage
(b) tertiary syphilis stage
(c) primary syphilis stage
(d) all of these
Answer: (a)
8. Syphilis is a complicated and organized sexually transmitted disease where the causative agent is
(a) a fungus
(b) a virus
(c) a bacteria
(d) a spirochete
Answer: (c, d)
9. Neurosyphilis is
(a) an infection of the liver due to syphilis
(b) a major illness of the eyes of babies due to syphilis
(c) an infection of the kidneys due to syphilis
(d) a major illness of the nervous system due to syphilis
Answer: (d)
10. Chancre of syphilis is found in the
(a) throat, chest area and vagina
(b) genitals only
(c) buttocks, back, arms and legs
(d) genitals, anus, rectum, vagina, lips and in the mouth
Answer: (d)
Bacteriophage
1. T. O. Diener discovered
(a) free infectious RNA
(b) bacteriophage
(c) infectious protein
(d) free infectious DNA
Answer: (a)
2. Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another in the process of transduction is by
(a) conjugation between bacteria of opposite strains
(b) physical contact between donor and recipient
(c) special organ for conjugation
(d) bacteriophages
Answer: (d)
3. Bacteriophages with tail are
(a) motile in water
(b) motile on plant leaves
(c) non-motile
(d) motile on bacterial surface
Answer: (d)
4. Viruses which cause lysis of bacteria are known as
(a) lysogenic
(b) lytic
(c) lipolytic
(d) lysozymes
Answer: (b)
5. Transduction involves
(a) bacteria obtaining DNA from the external environment
(b) bacteria obtaining DNA from the mother cell
(c) transfer of genome by conjugation
(d) transfer of genetic material through virus
Answer: (d)
6. Hershey and Chase proved that DNA is the genetic material. They worked on
(a) bacteriophages
(b) viroid
(c) fungus
(d) bacterium
Answer: (a)
7. Which of the following is used as a vector in genetic engineering?
(a) Bacteriophage
(b) Plasmid
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d)
8. When the viral genome gets inserted into bacterial host it is termed as
(a) replication
(b) lytic cycle
(c) lysogenic cycle
(d) capsid formation
Answer: (c)
9. Which of the following may contain satellite RNAs?
(a) Plant viruses
(b) Bacteriophages
(c) Prions
(d) Viroids
Answer: (a)
10. Transduction is mediated by
(a) F-factors
(b) cosmids
(c) phage vectors
(d) plasmid vectors
Answer: (c)
Thallophyte
1. Which of the following shows syngamy outside the body?
(a) Fungi
(b) Fern
(c) Algae
(d) Mosses
Answer: (c)
2. Which of the following pigments is present in the brown algae?
(a) Phycoerythrin
(b) Phycocyanin
(c) Haematochrome
(d) Fucoxanthin
Answer: (d)
3. Which of the following is called ‘amphibians’ of the Plant kingdom?
(a) Bryophyta
(b) Thallophyta
(c) Tracheophyta
(d) Pteridophyta
Answer: (a)
4. The general term for a group of plants reproducing by spore formation is
(a) thallophytes
(b) sporophytes
(c) bryophytes
(d) cryptogams
Answer: (d)
5. Conjugation in Spirogyra or fertilization in Chlamydomonas leads to the formation of
(a) carpospore
(b) oospore
(c) zoospore
(d) zygospore
Answer: (d)
6. Lichens are a good indicator of SO2 pollution because
(a) they flourish in polluted environments
(b) they are sensitive to SO2
(c) they grow faster
(d) they are an association of algae and fungi
Answer: (b)
7. Blue green algae are included in
(a) Fungi
(b) Protista
(c) Prokaryotes
(d) Bryophytes
Answer: (c)
8. Which of the following does not contain nuclear membrane?
(a) Nostoc
(b) Volvox
(c) Agaricus
(d) Penicillium
Answer: (a)
9. Most of the fungi contain _______ in their cell wall.
(a) peptidoglycan
(b) cellulose
(c) chitin
(d) hemicellulose
Answer: (c)
10. Which of the following contains more than one pyrenoids?
(a) Oedogonium
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Ulothrix
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Biosynthesis
1. Arthropods have an exoskeleton made up of chitin. It is a polymer of
(a) D-glucosamine
(b) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
(c) lipoglycans
(d) N-acetyl glucosamine
Answer: (d)
2. Phosphodiester bond is present in
(a) monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(b) fatty acids in a diglyceride
(c) nucleic acids in a nucleotide
(d) amino acids in a polypeptide
Answer: (c)
3. An example of a non-reducing carbohydrate is
(a) ribose 5-phosphate
(b) lactose
(c) sucrose
(d) maltose
Answer: (c)
4. Phosphoglyceride is made up of
(a) unsaturated or saturated fatty acids linked to phosphate to which glycerol is attached
(b) unsaturated or saturated fatty acids linked to glycerol to which phosphate is attached
(c) only saturated fatty acids linked to glycerol to which phosphate is attached
(d) only unsaturated fatty acids linked to glycerol to which phosphate is attached
Answer: (b)
5. Which of the following inhibits the action of succinic dehydrogenase by competitive inhibition?
(a) malate
(b) oxaloacetate
(c) 𝜶-ketoglutarate
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
6. Which of the following is a precursor of amino acid synthesis?
(a) fatty acids
(b) 𝜶-ketoglutaric acid
(c) mineral salts
(d) volatile acids
Answer: (b)
7. Phosphoenol pyruvate is the primary acceptor for CO2 fixation in
(a) C3 plants
(b) C4 plants
(c) C2 plants
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: (b)
8. Which of the following is the primary acceptor for CO2 fixation in C3 plants?
(a) PGA
(b) PEP
(c) RuBP
(d) RMP
Answer: (c)
9. The start condon for protein synthesis is
(a) AUG
(b) UAA
(c) UAG
(d) UGA
Answer: (a)
10. Ribosomal RNA is synthesized in
(a) ribosomes
(b) lysosomes
(c) nucleolus
(d) nucleoplasm
Answer: (c)
Androgens
1. As per the prenatal androgen theory, female homosexuality takes place as a result of
(a) underexposure to estrogen
(b) overexposure to prenatal androgen
(c) overexposure to testosterone
(d) underexposure to prenatal androgen
Answer: (b)
2. What is the reason why some human females tend to develop male characteristics such as degeneration of ovaries and uterus, beard, enlargement of the clitoris?
(a) surgical removal of mammary glands
(b) overproduction of adrenal androgens
(c) damage to the posterior pituitary
(d) overproduction of estrogen and testosterone
Answer: (b)
3. This is Addison’s disease
(a) Involves a long-term endocrine disorder in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid hormones
(b) Involves the overproduction of cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal cortex
(c) Involves the overproduction of androgens by the adrenal medulla
(d) Involves the underproduction of androgens by the adrenal medulla
Answer: (a)
4. This hormone in males triggers Sertoli cells to synthesize androgen binding globulin (ABG)
(a) Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
(b) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Answer: (d)
5. When chemical signals are produced by entities, it influences the behaviour of other entities belonging to the same species. This is known as
(a) Steroid
(b) Androgen
(c) Insulin
(d) Pheromone
Answer: (d)
6. This is the effect of GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus
(a) triggers the synthesis of carbohydrates from non-carbohydrates in liver
(b) triggers foetal ejection reflex
(c) triggers secretion of milk in the mammary glands
(d) triggers the synthesis and secretion of androgens
Answer: (d)
7. This condition results in females that secrete large quantities of androgens
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) Adrenal hyperplasia
(c) Both of these
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
8. The adrenal glands in hyperplasia produce high quantities of this substance
(a) Estrogen
(b) Androgen
(c) Glucocorticoids
(d) Adrenaline
Answer: (b)
9. This conduction is most likely to occur if the developing foetus is not sensitive to the effects of testosterone and other such androgens
(a) Klienfelters syndrome
(b) Von Willebrand’s disease
(c) Waardenburg’s syndrome
(d) Testicular feminisation syndrome
Answer: (d)
10. The receptor cells in the hypothalamus of the developing males in the womb are unresponsive to
(a) estrogen
(b) androgen
(c) gonadotropins
(d) testosterone
Answer: (a)
Dentition
1. When teeth are embedded in the jaw bone, it is called
(a) diphyodont
(b) thecodont
(c) heterodont
(d) all of the above
Answer: (b)
2. An adult human being has a total of 32 permanent teeth, which are of four types. They are called
(a) lophodont
(b) thecodont
(c) heterodont
(d) diphyodont
Answer: (c)
3. The arrangement of teeth in the upper and lower half of the jaws is represented by
(a) dentology
(b) odontology
(c) enamel
(d) dental formula
Answer: (d)
4. Which of the following is the hardest substance found in vertebrates?
(a) Chondrin
(b) Dentine
(c) Keratin
(d) Enamel
Answer: (d)
5. Which of the following is the correct dental formula of an adult human being?
Answer: (d)
6. Which of the following types of teeth are absent in the primary dentition of a human being?
(a) Canines
(b) Premolars
(c) Incisors
(d) Molars
Answer: (b)
7. Which of the following cells secrete enamel?
(a) Ameloblast
(b) Dontoblast
(c) Odontoblast
(d) Osteoblast
Answer: (a)
8. Which of the following cells secrete dentine?
(a) Chondroblast
(b) Osteoblast
(c) Odontoblast
(d) Elaioblast
Answer: (c)
9. The dentition of amphibians is
(a) heterodont
(b) acrodont
(c) thecodont
(d) lophodont
Answer: (b)
10. Human teeth are
(a) diphyodont
(b) thecodont
(c) heterodont
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
Gut
1. These are the functional units of food absorption
(a) Peyer’s patches
(b) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(c) Brunner’s glands
(d) Villi
Answer: (d)
2. This is not an enzyme of the digestive system
(a) Enterokinase
(b) Enterogastrone
(c) Amylase
(d) Trypsin
Answer: (b)
3. The gastric glands are situated in this layer of the stomach
(a) Submucosa
(b) Mucosa
(c) Muscularis mucosa
(d) Serosa
Answer: (b)
4. Movement of the walls of the gut is known as
(a) Metachronal
(b) Diastole
(c) Peristalsis
(d) Systole
Answer: (c)
5. The fundic part of the stomach is
(a) absent in frog, present in rabbit
(b) absent in both frog and rabbit
(c) present in both frog and rabbit
(d) absent in rabbit, present in frog
Answer: (a)
6. This food component is affected if the stomach’s pH is 7
(a) Fat
(b) Starch
(c) Sucrose
(d) Protein
Answer: (d)
7. The actual function of the vertebrate stomach is
(a) absorption
(b) storage
(c) digestion
(d) enzyme secretion
Answer: (b)
8. Digestion of proteins is accomplished in
(a) Duodenum
(b) Ileum
(c) Rectum
(d) Stomach
Answer: (b)
9. Name the valve running between the stomach and the oesophagus
(a) pyloric sphincter
(b) ileo-caecal valve
(c) gastric valve
(d) cardiac sphincter
Answer: (d)
10. This is the common passage for breathing and swallowing food
(a) Glottis
(b) Pharynx
(c) Larynx
(d) Gullet
Answer: (b)
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