Physics MCQs Test P 16

HN PHYSICS

 Mass Defect

Q1: If the radius of the 13Al27 nucleus is taken to be RAl then the radius of 53Te125 nucleus is nearly

  1. (53/13)1/3RAl
  2. 5/3 RAl
  3. ⅗ RAl
  4. (13/53) ⅓ RAl

Answer: (b) 5/3 RAl





Q2: A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then,

  1. The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus
  2. The helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium nucleus
  3. The helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus
  4. The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus

Answer: (a) The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus

Q3: The binding energy per nucleon of 3Li7 and 2He4 nuclei are 5.60 meV and 7.06meV respectively.

In the nuclear reaction 3Li7 + 1H1 ➡️ 2He4 +2He4+Q, the value of energy Q released is

  1. 19.6 MeV
  2. -2.4 MeV
  3. 8.4 MeV
  4. 17.3 MeV

Answer: (d) 17.3 MeV

Q4: Calculate the mass defect(amu/atom) for a 37Cl atom for which the actual mass is 36.966 amu.

  1. 0.341 amu
  2. 0.388 amu
  3. 0.623 amu
  4. 0.264 amu

Answer: (a) 0.341 amu

Q5: The mass defect for an isotope is 0.410 amu/atom. Calculate the value of binding energy.

  1. 1.23 x 1020 kJ/mol
  2. 2.23 x 103 kJ/mol
  3. 3.69 x 1010 kJ/mol
  4. 3.69 x 1013 kJ/mol

Answer: (c) 3.69 x 1010 kJ/mol

Q6: Which isotope below has the highest binding energy?

  1. 4He
  2. 16O
  3. 32S
  4. 55Mn

Answer: (d) 55Mn

Q7: Which of the following sentences is incorrect?

  1. Nuclear binding energy is the energy released in the formation of an atom from subatomic particles
  2. It the nucleus was formed from initially separated protons and electrons then the amount of matter converted into energy was called Mass defect.
  3. The total mass of protons and electrons in the atom.
  4. The most stable nuclei are molecules with the highest binding energy.

Answer: (c) The total mass of protons and electrons in the atom

Q8: A nucleus has a mass number A, atomic number Z and a binding energy B. The mass of neutron and proton are mn and mp respectively and cis the speed of light.

Which of the following expressions correctly represents the mass of the nucleus?

  1. (A – Z)mn+Zmp-B/c2
  2. (A – Z)mn+Zmp+ B/c2
  3. (A + Z)mn+Zmp– B/c2
  4. (A + Z)mn+Zmp+ B/c2

Answer: (a) (A – Z)mn+Zmp-B/c2


Keplers Law


Q1: When a planet orbits the Sun, one of the foci of the elliptical orbit is

  1. The axis
  2. The perihelion
  3. The centre
  4. The Sun

Answer: (d) The Sun

Q2: What has an eccentricity of zero?

  1. A straight line
  2. A large ellipse
  3. A circle
  4. A small ellipse

Answer: (c) A circle

Q3: An Astronomical Unit, or AU, is the average distance between

  1. The Sun and Neptune
  2. The Sun and Earth
  3. The Earth and the Moon
  4. The Sun and Mercury

Answer: (b) The Sun and Earth

Q4: Kepler’s second law is known as

  1. The Law of Orbits
  2. The Law of Areas
  3. The Law of Periods
  4. The Law of Gravity

Answer: (b) The Law of Areas

Q5: Kepler’s 2nd law deals with

  1. The shape of the planet’s orbits
  2. The speed/area the planet travels
  3. The length of time it takes the planet to orbit the sun
  4. Time travel

Answer: (b) The speed/area the planet travels

Q6: Kepler’s third law is known as

  1. The Law of orbits
  2. The Law of Areas
  3. The Law of periods
  4. The Law of gravity

Answer: (c) The Law of periods

Q7: The formula for Kepler’s third law is

  1. P3 ∝ a2
  2. P3 ∝ a3
  3. P2 ∝ a2
  4. P2 ∝ a3

Answer: (d) P2 ∝ a3

Q8: Kepler’s first law states that the orbits of the planets are oval in shape or

  1. Ellipses
  2. Perfect circles
  3. Squares
  4. triangles

Answer: (a) Ellipses

Q9: The Kepler’s first law is known as

  1. The law of orbits
  2. The law of areas
  3. The law of periods
  4. The law of gravity

Answer: (a) The law of orbits

Q10: The farther away a planet is from the sun, the …………. it takes it to orbit the sun once

  1. Longer
  2. Shorter

Answer: (a) Longer


Work Power and Energy

1. By how much does kinetic energy increase if the momentum is increased by 20%

(a) 55%

(b) 66%

(c) 44%

(d) 77%

Answer: (c) 44%

2. Calculate the energy loss in a perfectly inelastic collision if the mass of the object is 40kg with velocity 4m/s hits the object of mass 60kg with velocity 2m/s.

(a) 440J

(b) 110J

(c) 392J

(d) 48J

Answer: (d) 48J

3. Calculate the final kinetic energy of a block of mass if the mass of the block is 10kg and has a constant velocity of 10m/s. The block of mass is subjected to a retarding force of F=0.1J/m

(a) 275J

(b) 250J

(c) 475J

(d) 450J

Answer: (c) 475J

4. What is the average power required to lift a mass of 100kg to a height of 50m in 50 seconds?

(a) 980

(b) 100

(c) 50

(d) 5000

Answer: (a) 980

5. What is the power of the engine when the velocity of the car is v, mass m, acceleration a, and external resistance R

(a) (R-ma)v

(b) (R+ma)v

(c) mav

(d)Rv

Answer: (b) (R+ma)v

6. Consider an object with m as its mass such that it is accelerated uniformly from rest and the speed attained by the object is v in T time.  Calculate the instantaneous power that is delivered to the body in terms of function of time




7. Consider a particle of mass m which is driven by a machine that has a constant power k Watts. What is the force on the particle at time t if the particle starts from the rest?

8. When can one say that work is done on the body

(a) When the body experiences force

(b) When there is an increase in energy because of mechanical influence

(c) When the body moves a certain distance

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) When there is an increase in energy because of mechanical influence

9. Select the incorrect statement for the given situation: Two bodies with mass m1 and m2 undergo elastic collision

(a) When m1 and m2 is at rest, the kinetic energy transferred will be maximum

(b) The bodies will move in the same direction if m1 = m2 and when the collision is in oblique

(c) When m1 > m2, m2 will move with four times increase in its velocity than m1

(d) When m1 < m2, the transfer of momentum will be maximum

Answer: (c) When m1 > m2, m2 will move with four times increase in its velocity than m1

10. What is the ratio of velocities of a nucleus that splits into two parts with radii 1:2

(a) 6:1

(b) 2:1

(c) 8:1

(d) 4:1

Answer: (c) 8:1

11. What is the relation between E, P, and E if E is kinetic energy, P is momentum, and V is the velocity of the particle


Kinematics

1. Consider two cars M and N. These cars start from the same point and travel in a straight line such that their positions are xM(t) = at + bt2 and xN(t) = ft – t2. Determine the time at which both the cars are having the same velocity







Thermodynamics

2. Below is the distance-time curve traced by the particle. What is the maximum instantaneous velocity of the particle around the point

Kinematics MCQ NEET

(a) D

(b) B

(c) A

(d) C

Answer: (d) C

3. Below is the graph of a body whose initial velocity is v0. The body travels through a straight line with acceleration as shown in the graph. Determine the maximum velocity of the body.

Kinematics MCQ NEET



4. Which of the following statement is true if a body moves in a semicircular track whose radius is R

(a) 2R is the displacement of the body

(b) πR is the distance travelled by the body

(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct

5. What does the area under acceleration-time graph represent for any given time interval

(a) Final velocity

(b) Distance travelled

(c) Change in the velocity in that time interval

(d) Displacement of the particle

Answer: (c) Change in the velocity in that time interval

6. When can we say that the resultant of the two vectors is maximum

(a) When the vectors are acting in the opposite direction

(b) Both the vectors are acting in the same direction

(c) When the vectors are at right angles

(d) When the vectors are parallel to each other

Answer: (b) Both the vectors are acting in the same direction



Electro Statistics

1. What will be the flux coming out of any surface a cube, if a change QμC is placed at the centre of the cube?



2. Name the law that states the force between electric charges

(a) Ohm’s law

(b) Coulomb’s law

(c) Faraday’s law

(d) Ampere’s law

Answer: (b) Coulomb’s law

3. What happens to the force acting between the charged particles, if the distance between these charged particles is halved?

(a) It increases by four times

(b) It gets doubled

(c) It becomes half

(d) It reduces by one-fourth

Answer: (a) It increases by four times

4. What is the electric potential of the points A, B, and C which are in a uniform electric field?
Electrostatics 1

(a) The electric field is the same at all three points A, B, and C
(b) Maximum at A
(c) Maximum at B
(d) Maximum at C
Answer: (c) Maximum at B

5. What is the minimum charge on a particle?
(a) 1 Coulomb
(b) 1.6 x 10-19 Coulomb
(c) 3.2 x 10-19 Coulomb
(d) 6.6 x 10-19 Coulomb
Answer: (b) 1.6 x 10-19 Coulomb

6. For a hollow spherical shell, potential, V changes with respect to distance, r from the centre. Which graph from the following represents this?
Electrostatics 2

Answer: (b)

7. What is the graphical representation of an electric field due to the uniformly charged sphere of radius R which is a function of distance from the centre?
Electrostatics 3

Answer: (a)

8. The capacity of parallel plate condenser is dependent on the

(a) The separation between the plates

(b) The metal used for the construction

(c) The thickness of the plate

(d) The potential applied across the plates

Answer: (a) The separation between the plates

9. The mathematical representation of the force of attraction between the plates of the parallel plate capacitor is given as

10. What does an electric dipole experience when it is kept in the non-uniform electric field?

(a) Only a force

(b) Only torque

(c) Force and torque both

(d) Neither force nor torque

Answer: (c) Force and torque both

11. The capacitance of the capacitor is independent of

(a) The charges present on the plate

(b) The distance of separation between the plates

(c) The shape of the plates

(d) The size of the plates

Answer: (d) The size of the plates

12. Consider two capacitances of capacity C1 and C2 which are connected in series and have potential difference V. What is the potential difference across C1?





Electromagnetic Induction And Alternating Currents


Electromagnetic induction is defined as the production of an electromotive force across an electric conductor in the changing magnetic field. The discovery of induction was done by Michael Faraday in the year 1831. Electromagnetic induction finds many applications such as in electrical components which includes transformers, inductors, and other devices such as electric motors and generators.

Alternating current is defined as an electric current which reverses in direction periodically. In most of the electric power circuits, the waveform of alternating current is the sine wave.

1. How to increase the energy stored in an inductor by four times?
(a) By doubling the current
(b) This is not possible
(c) By doubling the inductance


3. Lenz law is based on which of the following conservation>
(a) Charge
(b) Mass
(c) Momentum
(d) Energy

Answer: (d) Energy


4. What will be the acceleration of the falling bar magnet which passes through the ring such that the ring is held horizontally and the bar magnet is dropped along the axis of the ring?

(a) It depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet
(b) It is equal due to gravity
(c) It is less than due to gravity
(d) It is more than due to gravity

Answer: (c) It is less than due to gravity

5. An observer is seeing the setup of an aluminium ring B facing an electromagnet A. The current I through A can be altered if

Electromagnetic Induction 1
(a) B is independent of an increase or decrease of I
(b) If I increases, A will attract B
(c) If I increase, A will repel B
(d) If I decrease, A will repel B

Answer: (c) If I increase, A will repel B

6. What is the equivalent inductance of the following circuit if the pure inductance is 3.0HElectromagnetic Induction 2
(a) 9H
(b) 3H
(c) 1H
(d) 2H

Answer: (c) 1H

7. What is the need for laminating the core of a transformer?
(a) To reduce the resistance in the winding
(b) To reduce the eddy currents
(c) To reduce the hysteresis
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) To reduce the eddy currents

8. Which of the following represent the variation of induced EMF with respect to time t if a short bar magnet is moved along its axis and has a constant velocity.Electromagnetic Induction 3

Answer: (b)

9. A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field such that the frequency of change of direction of the induced emf is
(a) Six times per revolution
(b) Four times per revolution
(c) Twice per revolution
(d) Once per revolution

Answer: (c) Twice per revolution

10. Which of the following is the equivalent quantity of mass in electricity?
(a) Current
(b) Charge
(c) Potential
(d) Inductance

Answer: (d) Inductance

11. What is the unit of inductance?
(a) Volt/ampere
(b) Joule/ampere
(c) Volt-ampere/sec
(d) Volt-sec/ampere

Answer: (d) Volt-sec/ampere

12. What is the angle made by the plane of eddy currents with the plane of magnetic lines of force?
(a) 0°
(b) 40°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

Answer: (c) 90°


Conservation Linear Momentum

1. How is a jet plane able to fly in the air?

  1. The thrust of the jet plane compensates the force of gravity
  2. The weight of the air is the weight of the plane
  3. The force of gravity doesn’t act on bodies moving with high speed
  4. The flow of the air around the wings cause an upward force which compensates for the force of gravity

Answer: (a) The thrust of the jet plane compensates the force of gravity

2. A player catches a ball of mass 150 gm moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the process of catching is to be completed in 0.1 sec. What is the force exerted by the ball on the hands of the player?

  1. 3000 N
  2. 300 N
  3. 30 N
  4. 0.3 N

Answer: (c) 30 N

3. When a force acts on a ball of mass 150 g for 0.1 sec, it produces an acceleration of 20 m/s2. What is the value of this impulsive force?

  1. 0.5 N-s
  2. 0.1 N-s
  3. 0.3 N-s
  4. 1.2 N-s

Answer: (c) 0.3 N-s

4. What is the motion of the rocket based on?

  1. Mass
  2. Linear Momentum
  3. Kinetic Energy
  4. Angular Momentum

Answer: (b) Linear Momentum

5. Which of the following is momentum closely related to?

  1. Impulse
  2. Power
  3. Force
  4. Kinetic Energy

Answer: (a) Impulse

6. Rocket Engines lift rocket from the earth surface because the hot gas with high velocity

  1. Push against the air
  2. Push against the earth
  3. Heat up the air which lifts the rocket
  4. React against the rocket and push it up

Answer: (d) React against the rocket and push it up

7. A bullet of mass 5 gm is fired from a gun of mass 5 kg. What is the velocity of the muzzle if the recoil velocity is 500 m/s.

  1. 500 m/s
  2. 5 m/s
  3. 50 m/s
  4. 0.5 m/s

Answer: (d) 0.5 m/s

8. A rope of length 5 m is kept on a frictionless surface and a force of 5 N is applied to one of its ends. What is the tension in the rope at 1 m from this end?

  1. 1 N
  2. 4 N
  3. 3 N
  4. 5 N

Answer: (b) 4 N

9. A wagon weighing 1000 kg moves 50 km/h on smooth rails. Later, a mass of 250 kg is placed in the wagon. What is the velocity with which it moves?

  1. 20 km/hr
  2. 50 km/hr
  3. 40 km/hr
  4. 2.5 km/hr

Answer: (c) 40 km/hr

10. An iron ball having a mass of 100 g with a velocity of 10 m/s collides with the wall at an angle of 300 and rebounds with the same angle. If the period of contact between the wall and the ball is 0.1 second. What is the force experienced by the ball?

  1. 0.1 N
  2. 1 N
  3. 10 N
  4. 100 N

Answer: (c) 10 N

Fundamentals Vectors

1. The position of a particle in a rectangular coordinate system is (3,2,5). What will the position vector be?


3. Any vector in an arbitrary direction can be replaced by two or three vectors

  1. perpendicular to each other and have the original vector as their resultant
  2. Parallel to each other and have the original vector as their resultant
  3. Arbitrary vectors which have original vectors as their resultant
  4. It is impossible to resolve a vector

Answer: (c) Arbitrary vectors which have original vectors as their resultant

4. Angular momentum is

  1. A scalar vector
  2. An axial-vector
  3. A polar vector
  4. A displacement vector

Answer: (b) An axial-vector

5. Which of the following is a vector?

  1. Surface Tension
  2. Moment of Inertia
  3. Pressure
  4. None of the above

Answer: (d) None of the above

11. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

  1. Acceleration
  2. Electric Field
  3. Work
  4. Displacement

Answer: (c) Work

6. A boy walks uniformly along the sides of a rectangular park with dimensions 400 m×300 m, starting from one corner to the other corner diagonally opposite. Which of the following statements is false?

  1. His displacement is 700 m
  2. His displacement is 500 m
  3. He has travelled a distance of 700 m
  4. His velocity is not uniform throughout the walk

Answer: (a) His displacement is 700 m


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